On Mon, 31 Jan 2011 21:23:52 +0000
Richard Dobson <richarddob...@blueyonder.co.uk> wrote:

> On 31/01/2011 12:53, Andy Farnell wrote:

> Er, they aren't, and never have been.

Hey Richard,

Sure they "aren't allowed". But they de facto _have_ _been_ 
allowed, and that's why we're having this discussion.

If the key to the argument for this stumbling mistake is the ill
formed notion of a virtual device then it will fall over easily.

Software patents were simply never a considered, rational move.
Instead they are a sleepwalk into a dream of market appeasement, 
based on a foggy understanding of the relationship between a real 
"device" and a virtual one. As you say they "recognise the notion", 
but haven't "thought about the definition". 

Since there is nothing to divide the line between "this" virtual device 
and a Universal Turing Machine, then there's no partition between the 
abstract and the concrete. In the former case the machine definition will 
be written into the claim which is concretized and becomes copyrighted, 
in the latter case the claim fails the "idea" (abstractness") test.


 --snip 

> Hence the classic original FM patent. It uses multiplication (can't be 

It's cool you picked FM, it helps develop an argument surrounding 
ambiguity and broadness:

In fact there never was a patent on FM. There was a patent on phase
modulation based on manipulation of an accumulator in a specific
way.  

"Well they're the same thing", you may say.

"Exactly!" I say.

So, why do we make this mistake? Because  FM and PM are
congruent, that is to say there are different mathematical
representations with possibly different code flows that
amount to the same thing. 

"Frequency Modulation" became the marketing phrase. Maybe
because a bunch of execs thought it sounded cooler. But
that's not the end of it because, I forget who, maybe 
Beauchamp or Arfib, who showed at a similar time,
that FM and wave-shaping could be considered congruent. You can
see modulation as dynamic wave-shaping in the case that the
shaper is another oscillator rather than a table. Therefore,
it really became an interpretation (in code) based on whether
you were using a stored or generated function whether what you
call FM or wave-shaping is your technology. This is why in my book
I was quite clear to draw a distinction, as is found throughout
design theory, between model, method and implementation.

So what significance does this have, given we all agree that so 
called "ideas", abstract mathematical formulations, even if they 
are functional, cannot be admitted as patents in the absence of a 
concrete design and purpose?

Since Aristotle, a trisection of realms, often encountered in social 
and psychological enquiry, distinguishes the "real", the "imaginary"
and the "symbolic". Symbols and the rules of their combination
are a shared, public realm, though unique ideas may be communicated
by combinations of atomic symbols.  This is something we grasp easily 
in computer science and has bearing on much of software engineering. 
Classically the symbolic mediates the real and the imaginary. 
Outside computing it's normally seen as a madness or social malady 
when there is sufficient confusion of any of these realms. 

The patent system does not properly distinguish these
things for software. It was never designed for software. Software
(purely symbolic) was shoe-horned into the patent system to
meet industrial demands much too fast. It stops at the
symbolic and merely implies the real (design). Since both abstract
and concrete symbolic forms are possible there is a SIGNIFICANT
AMBIGUITY surrounding any attempt at a "software patent".

What did this cause? 

IMHO, a great injustice. One of many mischiefs software patents
perpetrate echoing through the last decade.

Should Yamaha have been able to obtain the patent they
did? Let's say "yes", (keeping aside my other objections to software 
patents).

Should Yamaha have been able to monopolise the use of FM in 
music synthesis as a result? 

Categorically no! No! No! No!

Notwithstanding that there were other uses of FM in music 
synthesis prior to the Yamaha patent, the point is
that the interpretation of the patent, in reality,
by people who were not qualified or diligent enough to
understand its narrow symbolic meaning, was too broad.

You may conclude development was stifled.

Why? Because the patent, while for a very specific implementation, 
was interpreted and defended as a claim on a broad class of methods.
Everything else in that class was effectively prohibited during 
this time.

Were Yamaha rationally justified in filing a patent, which was
on a design, but was interpreted as being on a process? I'm sure
they didn't intend to muddy this boundary but given that 
it was actually a VLSI/ASIC job that would have taken at 
least an electron microscope and months to reverse engineer, 
probably no. Maybe Yamaha were over-eager and overreached in their 
claims. The claims were certainly over-interpreted.



Ross raised another interesting question on the FM debacle. 
I paraphrase: "Didn't that actually stimulate Korg, Casio, Roland 
and others to develop better and equally interesting methods?"

I've been thinking hard about this one. Initially I see it as
happy hindsight (in psychology: a framing bias based on
cognitive dissonance where you only see good outcomes from
adverse conditions - e.g. you justify abuse or war as "making
you stronger")

Although I now think there's something in it, because Korg could
have built wave-shaping technology with a similar sound and
interface to Yamaha, but probably chose to make it as different
as possible to avoid a market conflict. Interestingly, that
would still have been a rational choice with or without Yamaha's
patents. 

Problem is, it works in areas of software where there is clearly
more than one way to do it (as Perl hackers would say), but there are
strategic singular behaviours or methods, choke points, that when  
seized can only work to the detriment of industry in general.
Nobody wants to talk about these because they are both desirable
to those invested in the current protectionist system and very
hard to know in advance (if there is another accessible solution).
People will claim that they are "obvious". But that isn't necessarily
so. Therefore, obviousness alone shouldn't be the principle objection.
There is a moral question surrounding a mechanism that can block
progress for others, whether the intentions are good or not.

I realise that in 2011 many are frightened by the word "moral".
They dismiss morality as woolly and subjective. I would argue that
some moral choices are far clearer, in terms of consensual correctness,
than interpretations like what is "obvious".

Anyway I rest my point on broadness here:

The definition of Patents is not sufficiently mature to encompass
software because it cannot do so with unambiguous symbolic boundaries.
The necessary symbolic precision required means the Copyright would be
a better mechanism. If it's not code you are trying to protect then it's
an abstraction, which by definition is prohibited. QED.


sincerely

Andy
-- 
Andy Farnell <padawa...@obiwannabe.co.uk>


-- 
Andy Farnell <padawa...@obiwannabe.co.uk>
--
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