Great to follow this Ross, even with my weak powers of math
its informative.

So, just an application note: of course the idea of "cheap" oscillators
with interesting band limited waveforms, that require no more
than a phasor and arithmetic (multiplies, integer powers, etc) is
a goal.

I did some experiments with Bezier after being hugely inspired by
the sounds Jagannathan Sampath got with his DIN synth.
(http://dinisnoise.org/)
Jag told me that he had a cute method for matching the endpoints
of the segment (you can see in the code), and listening, sounds
seem to be alias free, but we never could arrive at a proof of
that.

Now I am revisiting that territory for another reason and wondering
about the properties of easily computed polynomials again.

all best,
Andy


n Sun, Jun 12, 2016 at 02:57:41PM +1000, Ross Bencina wrote:
> On 12/06/2016 3:05 AM, Andy Farnell wrote:
> >Does it make any sense to talk about the "spectrum of a polynomial"
> >over some (periodic) interval (less than infinity)?? Or is that
> >silly talk?
> 
> For the infinite interval:
> 
> Expanding the definition of the Fourier transform, for polynomial p:
> 
> P(w) = integral -infinity to infinity p(x) [e^(-2 pi i x w) ] dx
> 
> w is a real number.
> 
> This integral diverges as a Riemann integral. The Cauchy Principle
> value for polynomials of strictly odd order is zero. I don't know
> whether there's another theory of integration where this Fourier
> integral would make sense.
> 
> Looking at transform 308 in the tables here:
> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fourier_transform
> 
> It appears that if you know about distribution theory (I don't) and
> the derivatives of the Dirac delta you might be able to make sense
> of it.
> 
> But clearly a polynomial over an infinite interval is not going to
> make for a very useful signal :)
> 
> ~
> 
> For a finite (non-periodic) interval, you're essentially talking
> about a polynomial windowed with a rectangular window. Such a
> function has finite support, so the Fourier integral can be
> evaluated over a finite interval.
> 
> Consider an integral related to the Fourier integral for James'
> function with a = 2, b = 1, i.e. f(x) = (1-x^2) (the Welch window).
> 
> F(k) = integral -1 to 1 [(1-x^2)e^(ikx)] dx
> 
> Integration by parts (twice) yeilds:
> 
> F(k) = (-4/k^2)cos(k) + (4/k^3)sin(k)
> 
> For higher powers of a and b, you'll end up with a cascade of
> roughly ab integration by parts, and the decay of the transform is
> something like 1/k^ab.
> 
> ~
> 
> Now, how best to evaluate the Fourier integral for a repeated
> (periodic) polynomial segment?
> 
> Cheers,
> 
> Ross.
> 
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