On 10 Feb 2010, at 10:42, tim rolls BT wrote: > However, what about the rest of my questions?
Hi Tim Your other questions . . . > Am I right in thinking that before 1920ish and the current standardised > concert pitch at "G" that many instruments' G was lower anyway, which would > have led to lower tension anyway. Others will know far more about that than I do. However I will say that the internationally agreed pitch of 'concert'A = 440Hz is not always followed faithfully and in modern orchestral practice is continuing to rise variably in individual cases. The 'baroque' pitch of A = 415Hz is a modern compromise-concept since pitch varied from town to town and court to church. Similarly an old French pitch is (for the sake of convenience) given as a very low A= 392 Hz. Leaving the consequent effect on knickers entirely apart, this is virtually the same pitch difference between our pipes and concert G. > Also is pitch purely dependent on tension? Purely? No. But this is far too complex for me. I'd say that mass has a considerable effect, as well as material characteristics and the nature of the sound plate that the string is communicating with. The danger with such a question is that one might receive a full and comprehensive answer, which in such cases is usually to be regretted! Apologies for being so picky with the 'baroque violin' description. It does sound like an interesting instrument and it is fortunate to have escaped the 'improvements' which the vast number of Stradivari violins has received. Francis To get on or off this list see list information at http://www.cs.dartmouth.edu/~wbc/lute-admin/index.html
