Then let me get this straight... All of the hours of discussion and debuging put into differentiating VAT from US tax calculation is so that you can create a round marketing price point that will get screwed up if you sell in different markets with differing VAT rates? Interesting.
I think it might be easier to topple the powers that be than to solve this problem ;) vive le resistance! --- Scott Gray <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > As the VAT is included in the price it would be: > 100/1.175 = 85.1063829787234 > or > price/(1+VAT) = VAT exclusive > which would be the same as US tax > > i think the issue is more related to exclusion or > inclusion of tax in the > final price. They are both percentages on top of the > base price. > > Regards > Scott > > On 12/10/06, Chris Howe <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> > wrote: > > > > 100/ (1-.175) = 121.21212121212121 > > % = 1/100 > > > > --- Andrew Sykes <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> > wrote: > > > > > Chris, > > > > > > I'm not sure I follow this... > > > > VAT -> productPrice / (1-VAT) = final price > > > > > > productPrice = 100 > > > VAT = 17.5% > > > > > > 100 / (1-17.5) = -6.060606061 ??? > > > > > > It should be... > > > ( productPrice / 100 ) * ( 100 + VAT ) = final > price > > > > > > Am I misunderstanding your comment? > > > -- > > > Kind Regards > > > Andrew Sykes <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> > > > Sykes Development Ltd > > > http://www.sykesdevelopment.com > > > > > > > > > > >
