On Tue, 01 Jul 2003 23:13:51 -0400, Joe Mucchiello wrote:
>Why would PI be limited to what copyright allows? You can agree to
>anything in a contract. Nowhere in the OGL does it state the PI
>follows the rules of copyright law. Any court that even considered
>PI similar to copyright would be acting outside the contract.

I think the principle is that you must be the "owner of the Product 
Identity" to declare it (section 1e). How do you establish ownership 
of intellectual property other than by means of copyright and 
trademark?
-- 
Rogers Cadenhead, [EMAIL PROTECTED] on 07/02/2003
Weblog: http://www.cadenhead.org/workbench


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