"Bill Page" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:

| > "Bill Page writes:
| >  ...
| >  | In the example code that I gave and in my emails I
| >  | have specifically stated that I think equality of functions in
| >  Axiom | should be changed so that it applies EQ after
| > resolving the functions.
| >
| 
| On Wed, Apr 9, 2008 at 9:42 AM, Gabriel Dos Reis wrote:
| >
| >  But the question is: Why doing that actually computes anything
| >  menaingful? What is the mathematical definition to measure that
| >  hack against? Where is that definition?
| >
| 
| I don't understand why this is difficult for you.

It probably is difficult because you have consistantly avoided to
tell me what the definition of equality of function is, so that I
check that the implementation does not something sensible.


[...]

| It seems clear to me that this requires a definition of function
| equality that at least is consistent with the syntactical equality.

Please, give me the semantics.  I'm not talking syntax.

| The current definition of '=' in Mapping fails because it depends on
| the "state" of the function, i.e. whether it is fully resolve yet, or
| not.
| 
| Do you find anything unclear in this statement?

Not unclear.  Missing.  And the circle continues.

-- Gaby

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