In a message dated 7/13/04 4:28:37 PM Eastern Daylight Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
> So we are back to Carson's question: what US Law did > Manuel Arias violate. And if he was arrested _before_ he entered the > USA, that is before he passed immigration, The US (again) violated > international law. Precisely which priniciple of international law, treaty, or convention are you relying on as authority for the the idea that that a nation doesn't have jurisdiction over persons (other than those with diplomatic status, of course) who are physically present within their territory but who haven't been formally admitted by that nation's immigration authorities? Michael Gerzog
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