Helmut, List,

I will answer the second question first, as the answer (from Peirce) may
shed light on the first. My reply is a little late because I don't post
several times a day, I don't change thread titles, and I strive to respect
exact thinking by scrupulously following Peirce, which prevents me from
attributing errors to him that he did not commit.

To understand what a trichotomy is, we must look for where Peirce defines
it precisely, because everyone knows that it is closely related to
universal categories, but exact thinking must strive to define each term
used clearly and unambiguously. Indeed, trichotomies are at work in the
classification of the sciences, particularly in the sciences of discovery.
It is in the first of the Lowell Lectures of November 1903 that Peirce
constructs "the ladder into the Well of Truth by successive trichotomies"
(see the Syllabus), a fractal-type progression. I have described it in C.S.
Peirce's Reasoned Classification Of The Sciences. I have carefully
distinguished between trichotomy and tripartition and have formalized the
notion of trichotomy in this chapter. However, in the 5th lecture, in the
context of triadic relations (MS 540), I find the following formulation:

*Triadic relations are in three ways divisible by trichotomy, according as
the First, the Second, or the Third Correlate, respectively, is a mere
possibility, an actual existent, or a law. *(CP 2.238; EP 2: 290)

This is not yet a definition, as it is an attribution of nature to
correlates, but it is very similar. If we further compare it to the way
trichotomies operate in the classification of the sciences:

*It turns out that in most cases the divisions are trichotomic; the First
of the three members relating to universal elements or laws, the Second
arranging classes of forms and seeking to bring them under universal laws,
the Third going into the utmost detail, describing individual phenomena and
endeavoring to explain them*. (An Outline Classification of the Sciences,
CP 1.180; EP2: 258)

So, a formal definition, applicable in all circumstances, would be
something like:

A trichotomy is a tripartite division of a phaneron into three parts
defined by the natures of the elements it contains, each of which is
characterized by one of the three classes: Thirdness, Secondness, and
Firstness.

It follows that, since these categories are interdependent and verify
relations of involvement *a priori, *then the elements with which each part
is associated (which, for convenience, I call, as Peirce was, the fact,
Tertians, Secondans, and Primans) must be such that Tertians govern
Secondans, whose existence is by definition presupposed, and also Primans,
which, by their definition, only exist when incarnated in Secondans.

This is why I proposed the 3D diagram of the podium in *"The 'Podium' of
Universal Categories and their degenerate cases."*

Helmut, your question reflects a trouble you may feel when, proceeding with
a tripartite division according to universal categories, you find yourself
in the presence of parts which, to be trichotomies, must have relations. If
this is indeed the case, then I hope these few reflections will have been
helpful to you.

As for your first question, it actually contains two questions, since, in
my opinion, the last sentence has nothing to do with the others.

HR: *This could be explained more explicitly by mentioning the two parts of
the object and the three parts of the interpretant, but my point works
anyway, so I think*

Indeed, the first part of your question concerns the triadic sign. In the
second part, it is inconceivable that you could claim to explain a triadic
model (whether that of 1903 without determinations or that of 1905 with two
determinations) using concepts from a hexadic model conceived in 1908. You
are not the only one to make this mistake.

If I come back to the first part of your first question, you initially
ask, *"Why
is there so much emphasis put on the distinction between a correlate
(object, interpretant) and the relation between the sign and each of both?"*
I find your use of "on" to be excessive. Personally, I have never attached
any importance to this. Of course, we can talk about these two relations,
because they exist, of course, both in the triadic representamen without
determinations and in the triadic sign with two determinations. In the
first case, these are dyads induced by the triad; in the second case, there
are only O → S and S → I, which, by concatenation, create O → I.

Moreover, when I see that we write (S-O) or (S-Od) and talk about
trichotomizing this entity without mentioning the trichotomies of the
constituents, I believe that we are misinterpreting Peirce and creating
confusion. If we analyze it, there is the "-" which is a conventional sign
to express a binary relation (a Tertian), but without specifying its
direction. I don't see how we could trichotomize this relation
independently of the trichotomies of S and O (or Od), because it is the
valid combinations of pairs of natures that will dictate the choice of
direction. In fact, for Peirce, it is a way of speaking, and these things
are implied when he focuses on the sign S. It seems to me that your first
question begins by making this observation. Consequently, it contains the
correct answer and that you do not need to resort to another, later
conception of the sign to explain it...
Best regards,
Robert Marty
Honorary Professor; PhD Mathematics; PhD Philosophy
fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Robert_Marty
*https://martyrobert.academia.edu/ <https://martyrobert.academia.edu/>*



Le sam. 18 oct. 2025 à 21:47, Helmut Raulien <[email protected]> a écrit :

> Jon, Robert, List,
>
> I have two questions, the first is, why is there so much emphasis put on
> the distinction between a correlate (object, interpretant) and the relation
> between the sign and each of both? I think, the object and the interpretant
> are already relations with the sign: The object (at least the immediate,
> but I think, both parts) doesn´t exist, if it isn´t denoted by, and
> determines the sign. The interpretant is already determined by the sign,
> and without an anticipated interpretant, the sign would not exist. This
> could be explained this more explicitly, by mentioning the two parts of the
> object, and the three of the interpretant, but my point works anyway
> already so, I think.
> My second question is: What is a trichotomy? Is it both about
> specification/classification, and composition? From the word root (to cut
> something into three pieces)  I would say, it only is about composition,
> e.g. for sign, object, interpretant. But not for classification, like
> rheme, dicent, argument. Because there it is not about parts of something,
> but about "either-or" classes. "Either-or" means, these items already are
> apart, you cannot cut something into three pieces here. Ok, you can do this
> with your mind, but then you don´t cut the real -or imagined- thing apart,
> not even prescindingly, but virtually e.g. a sheet of paper, on which
> classes are written. Then you have a trichotomy of paper, but not of the
> interpretant (aka(?) its relation with the sign).
>
> Best, Helmut
> 17. Oktober 2025 um 19:15
> "Jon Alan Schmidt" <[email protected]>
> *wrote:*
> Robert, List:
>
> As I demonstrated by providing the relevant quotations in my previous post
> in this thread (CP 2.238&243, EP 2:290-1), although Peirce suggests in 1903
> that *triadic relations* are classified using trichotomies for the nature
> of each correlate *itself*, he does not go on to classify *signs *that
> way; after all, a sign is *not *a triadic relation, it is the *first
> correlate* of such a relation (CP 2.242, EP 2:290). Instead, although the
> first trichotomy is indeed according to the nature of the sign *itself*,
> the second is according to the nature of the *relation* between the first
> and second correlates, the sign and its object; and the third is according
> to the nature of the *relation *between the first and third correlates,
> the sign and its interpretant.
>
> These are both *dyadic *relations that are *involved *in the triadic
> relation, but the latter is not *reducible *to them, which is why it is a 
> *genuine
> *triadic relation. Peirce recognizes already in 1903 that "In every
> genuine Triadic Relation, the First Correlate may be regarded as
> determining the Third Correlate in some respect" (CP 2.241, EP 2:290),
> i.e., the sign *determines *its interpretant. He later elaborates that
> the sign "is both determined by the object *relatively to the
> interpretant*, and determines the interpretant *in reference to the
> object*" (EP 2:410, 1907), i.e., the sign's dyadic relations with its
> object and interpretant are *both *relations of determination--the object 
> *determines
> *the sign to *determine *the interpretant. Again, Peirce uses
> trichotomies for these *relations*, not the object and interpretant
> *themselves*, to classify signs in 1903.
>
> Identifying six correlates instead of three is a refinement, not an
> *entirely *new conceptualization. What Peirce calls the object in 1903 is
> precisely what he later calls the *dynamical *object, as distinguished
> from the *immediate *object. We know this because the trichotomy for the
> sign's relation with its object in 1903 (icon/index/symbol) is identical to
> the one for the sign's relation with its *dynamical *object in his later
> taxonomies. Likewise, what Peirce calls the interpretant in 1903 is what he
> later calls the *final *interpretant, as distinguished from the
> *immediate *and *dynamical *interpretants. We know this because the
> trichotomy for the sign's relation with its interpretant in 1903
> (rheme/dicisign/argument) is identical to the one for the sign's relation
> with its *final *interpretant in his later taxonomies (further
> generalized to seme/pheme/delome).
>
> Regards,
>
> Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
> Structural Engineer, Synechist Philosopher, Lutheran Christian
> www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt / twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt
>
> On Fri, Oct 17, 2025 at 2:48 AM robert marty <[email protected]>
> wrote:
>
>> Jon, List,
>>
>> It's clear that you don't know much about binary relations, let alone
>> triadic or hexadic relations. Once again, your response misses the point.
>> The binary relation you note (S-Od) by introducing Od, which cannot have
>> been present in 1903 since it first appeared in a hexadic definition of the
>> sign in 1906 (definition 33), in a new conceptualization of the sign with
>> six elements and five determinations. You always come back to that.
>> However, here Peirce works only with triadic relations, which he class
>> without any internal determination between their respective correlates. He
>> class them according to the valid triplets of natures to which he assigns
>> all three. Your 21 classes are flawed and have no future. I believe I have
>> already answered all of this in my previous posts. It is best that we leave
>> it at that.
>>
>> Best regards,
>>
>> Robert Marty
>> Honorary Professor ; PhD Mathematics ; PhD Philosophy
>> fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Robert_Marty
>> *https://martyrobert.academia.edu/ <https://martyrobert.academia.edu/>*
>>
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