Jon, list

With regard to the reality/fact, that we are BOTH reasonably intelligent 
explorers and analysts of Peircean semiosis - then, I think such an opinion is 
made clear by the liberal use of such phrases as 'in my view', in my opinion, 
in my analysis'...rather than assertions  YOU are misreading etc...

With regard to the objective idealism of Peirce - you are right - I didn't 
explain myself well. I did not mean neutralism, where both materialism and 
idealism are originating forces and thus cancel each other; I meant that both 
co-exist; neither can exist without the other. I simply don't read his 
objective idealism - which i consider as NOT equivalent to idealism [while it 
appears that you do]  - as considering that idealism is primordial.As to which 
is first - his outline of the emergence of the universe is that - before matter 
- there was nothing.  [1.411] That means - no Mind. No matter and no mind- 
instead; just nothing.

And "it would be a mistake to conceive of the psychical and the physical 
aspects of matter as two aspects absolutely distinct" 6.268. Since they are not 
distinct - then, I don't see how idealism is primordial. Objective idealism, on 
the other hand, merges the psychical and physical. It doesn't define them as 
ONE force; it acknowledges they are two - but - they were never separate.

Therefore, my reading of Peirce sees his objective idealism as quite different 
from your reading of him as an idealist.

Actually, if one wants to discuss primordial forces, one can consider the Three 
Categories, where 'three elements are active in the world; first, chance; 
second, law; and third, habit-taking' 1.409. Before the forces of matter 
[Secondness] and mind [Thirdness], there was chance/randomness [Firstness]. 
This too suggests that neither the material nor mental forces are primordial. 

But - "Out of the womb of indeterminacy, we must say that there would have come 
something, by the Principle of Firstness, which we may call a flash. Then by 
the principle of habit there would have been a second flash. Though time would 
not yet have been, this second flash was in some sense after the first, because 
resulting from it. Then thre would have come other successions ever more and 
more closely connected, the habits and the tendency to take them ever 
strengthening themselves, until the events would have been bound together into 
something like a continuous flow" 1.412.

My view of the above is that neither the mental nor the material are 
primordial; they co-develop. To me - that is what objective idealism means.


Edwina









  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: Jon Alan Schmidt 
  To: Edwina Taborsky 
  Cc: Peirce-L ; [email protected] 
  Sent: Sunday, August 21, 2016 10:01 PM
  Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] Dynamic/Immediate Object and Determination/Causation


  Edwina, List: 


  With all due respect--I am not lecturing you, I never suggested that you are 
dumb or ignorant, and I am certainly not self-designating myself as The 
Authority.  Your claim, which you even underlined for emphasis, was that 
"Peirce rejects all three outlines and considers 'both the psychical and the 
physical as primordial'."  This is simply not the case, and the words that you 
implied to be quoted directly from Peirce never appear in the actual text of CP 
6.24-25, which Gary F. helpfully provided in full.  In fact, Peirce flatly 
rejected this notion as the essence of neutralism.


    CSP:  Neutralism is sufficiently condemned by the logical maxim known as 
Ockham's razor, i.e., that not more independent elements are to be supposed 
than necessary.  By placing the inward and outward aspects of substance on a 
par, it seems to render both primordial. (emphasis added)


  As for the view that he espoused as his own, here are the key portions again.


    CSP:  ... the physical law as derived and special, the psychical law alone 
as primordial, which is idealism ... The one intelligible theory of the 
universe is that of objective idealism ...


  By deductive inference--really, just simple substitution--Peirce's stated 
view here is that the one intelligible theory of the universe is that 
(objectively) the psychical law alone is primoridial, while the physical law is 
derived and special.  The whole structure of the passage is that there are only 
three alternatives, and he explicitly rejects the other two (neutralism and 
materialism).  There is no legitimate way to justify any other reading.


  You seem to think that Peirce's use of "objective idealism" in CP 6.25, 
rather than just "idealism," is significant.  Maybe so, but whatever he meant 
by "objective idealism," he still meant idealism in the sense that the 
psychical law is primoridial, and the physical law is derived and special.  
There is nothing whatsoever in the text that suggests otherwise.  As for the 
other passage that I quoted ...


    CSP:  ... idealism [is] the doctrine that ideas are everything ... I have 
proposed to make synechism mean the tendency to regard everything as 
continuous. (CP 7.565, EP 2.1; 1893)


  Here the "idealism" that he specifically rejects is "the doctrine that ideas 
are everything"; in other words, that the psychical laws are exclusive, rather 
than just primordial, such that there really is no such thing as matter at 
all--only mind.  Synechism, by contrast, is the doctrine that mind and matter 
are continuous--but still, the psychical law is primordial, and the physical 
law is derived and special.  That is precisely why and how "matter is effete 
mind."


  Now, if you want to argue that Peirce was wrong about this--i.e., that the 
psychical law and physical law are somehow both primoridial (neutralism), or 
that neither is--then you are welcome to make your case.  However, as 
demonstrated above, it is false to claim that this was Peirce's own view as 
expressed in these two passages.


  Regards,


  Jon


  On Sun, Aug 21, 2016 at 7:40 PM, Edwina Taborsky <[email protected]> wrote:

    Jon - I would appreciate it if, rather than lecturing me on my 'misreading' 
or misunderstanding of Peirce, you would acknowledge that we are both explorers 
in Peircean analysis and that it is quite possible that I am not quite as dumb 
and ignorant as you suggest I am - and that we are both, equally,  continuously 
exploring and analyzing his works. We may indeed disagree with each other's 
explorations and analysis - but I don't think that either one of us should 
self-designate oneself as The Authority. 

    i agree with your clarification of neutralism: the two, Mind and Matter are 
not independent  of each other - and I've been saying that all along - but, 
with regard to  Peirce's view - his objective idealism does not, in my view, 
posit that the psychical is primordial - which is Platonism. His Objective 
idealism is not identical with 'idealism' but quite different from it. He's 
quite clear that Mind operates within Matter but nowhere does he separate them. 
He's Aristotelian, not a Platonist. I'm sure you also know the equally famous 
quotation:

    4.551. "Thought is not necessarily connected with a brain. It appears in 
the work of bees, of crystals, and throughout the purely physical world".

     I don't consider that he ever thought of Mind and Matter as equivalent - 
and I've no idea why you come up with such a supposition that I think that way. 
BUT - they do not exist, in my view, separately. 

    You wrote: "However, this reflects more of a change in emphasis than a 
change of position. What he specifically rejected here was that ideas are 
everything, not that psychical laws are primordial. So once again, your 
disagreement is with Peirce--in this case, a very sharp and fundamental one."

    What do you understand by the phrase 'ideas are everything'? And again - I 
don't see where he supports the concept that 'psychical laws are primordial'. I 
don't see him separating the two, Mind and Matter - and to posit that psychical 
laws are primordial - requires a separation - which he rejects. He acknowledges 
that Mind and Matter are not identical; after all - his whole set of categories 
is based around such an analysis - but- i don't see where he posits that either 
one exists separately from the other. 

    His Objective Idealism is not the same as idealism because of this 
entanglement of Mind and Matter. For 'there cannot be a General without 
Instances embodying it" 4.551. [Now, that's pure Aristotle right there!!]

    Edwina
      ----- Original Message ----- 
      From: Jon Alan Schmidt 
      To: Edwina Taborsky 
      Cc: Peirce-L ; [email protected] 
      Sent: Sunday, August 21, 2016 8:11 PM
      Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] Dynamic/Immediate Object and 
Determination/Causation


      Edwina, List: 


      I know that you did not make it up; I am quite familiar with the citation 
from Peirce, since it is one of his most famous remarks.  Your statement, "Mind 
only exists as articulated within Matter," is fine as far as it goes if you 
mean "exists" strictly in the Peircean sense that is confined to Secondness; 
but it is certainly NOT the case, according to Peirce, that "Mind only has 
Being as articulated in Matter," or that "there is only Mind as articulated in 
Matter."  Again, why would he say that "matter is effete mind" if he believed 
that there is no other kind of mind?  That would mean that matter and mind are 
equivalent, whereas he viewed them as continuous (more below).


      More seriously, it seems that you are completely misreading CP 6.24-25 
(also EP 1.293; 1891).  Please review it again carefully.  Notice that the 
subject heading is "Objective Idealism."  Peirce proposes exactly three options 
for the relation between physical and psychical laws--neutralism if they are 
independent, materialism if the physical laws are primordial, or idealism if 
the psychical laws are primordial.  He then dismisses materialism as "quite as 
repugnant to scientific logic as to common sense," and eliminates neutralism by 
means of Ockham's razor.  He then concludes with precisely what you quoted--he 
unambiguously embraces idealism, which in his own words means that he held "the 
physical law as derived and special, the psychical law alone as primordial."


      Now, only a couple of years later, Peirce distinguished his synechism 
from idealism.


        CSP:   For two centuries we have been affixing -ist and -ism to words, 
in order to note sects which exalt the importance of those elements which the 
stemwords signify.  Thus, materialism is the doctrine that matter is 
everything, idealism the doctrine that ideas are everything, dualism the 
philosophy which splits everything in two.  In like manner, I have proposed to 
make synechism mean the tendency to regard everything as continuous. (CP 7.565, 
EP 2.1; 1893)


      However, this reflects more of a change in emphasis than a change of 
position.  What he specifically rejected here was that ideas are everything, 
not that psychical laws are primordial.  So once again, your disagreement is 
with Peirce--in this case, a very sharp and fundamental one.


      Finally, I never said that the Representamen is identical with Thirdness. 
 What I said is "that Representation is Peirce's paradigm example of Thirdness, 
and that Signs [i.e., Representamens] are the means by which all Representation 
takes place."


      Regards,


      Jon


      On Sun, Aug 21, 2016 at 6:11 PM, Edwina Taborsky <[email protected]> 
wrote:

        Jon - I didn't make up the sentence 'matter is effete mind'. It's 
Peirce's phrase. 

        "The one intelligible theory of the universe is that of objective 
idealism; that matter is effete mind, inveterate habits becoming physical laws" 
6.25.

        And as he says in 6.24, 'The old dualistic notion of mind and matter, 
so prominent in Cartesianism, as two radically different kinds of substance, 
will hardly find defenders today"...and he goes on to describe whether physical 
laws and the psychical law are to be taken as a) 'independent of each other; , 
or b) the psychical law as derived [with the physical as primordial], or c) the 
physical law as derived with the psychical as primordial'.....6.24. Peirce 
rejects all three outlines and considers 'both the psychical and the physical 
as primordial'.

        i totally disagree with any notion that there is such a thing as 
non-materialized Mind, i.e., that there is such a thing as 'non-effete' Mind. 
And I don't agree with your view that Peirce thinks such a thing for that would 
be to put the psychical as primordial and he rejects that...Read his outline of 
Objective Idealism 6.24

        And the Representamen is not identical with Thirdness. As you can see 
in the ten classes of Signs, [8.341] the Representamen is in a mode of 
Thirdness in 6 of these classes, in a mode of Secondness in 3 and in a mode of 
Firstness in 1 class. And - yet, he defines them ALL as Signs.

        Edwina


          ----- Original Message ----- 
          From: Jon Alan Schmidt 
          To: Edwina Taborsky 
          Cc: Peirce-L ; [email protected] 
          Sent: Sunday, August 21, 2016 6:38 PM
          Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] Dynamic/Immediate Object and 
Determination/Causation


          Edwina, List: 


          I think that we are still stumbling on the term "exists."  Again, we 
agree that Qualisigns and Legisigns only exist in their instantiations 
(Replicas or Tokens); but those instantiations are all actually Sinsigns.  A 
Qualisign or Legisign as such has no brute reactions with anything else, which 
means that it does not satisfy Peirce's definition of existence (e.g., CP 
1.431-433).


            ET:  Mind only exists as articulated within Matter ... Again 
'matter is effete Mind'.


          This right here is why I find myself wondering if you are a 
materialist, rather than a synechist as Peirce was, along with your flat denial 
previously that the inner and outer worlds belong to a single continuum.  The 
statement that "matter is effete mind" implies, to me, that mind is the more 
fundamental concept--and that there is such a thing as mind that is not effete, 
and therefore not "articulated within matter."  Although it might be improper 
to say that such non-effete mind "exists," it certainly does have Being in 
Peirce's way of thinking.  After all, he famously offered "A Neglected Argument 
for the Reality [not existence] of God," and God is clearly an example of mind 
that is not "articulated within matter."


            ET:  I disagree with your insistence that the Sign is 'Peirce's 
paradigm example of Thirdness'.


          I suppose that it might have been more accurate for me to say that 
Representation is Peirce's paradigm example of Thirdness, and that Signs are 
the means by which all Representation takes place.  But really, your 
disagreement is with Peirce; here is a longer excerpt of the entire passage 
from which Jerry quoted only a snippet.


            CSP:  The third Universe comprises everything whose being consists 
in active power to establish connections between different objects, especially 
between objects in different Universes.  Such is everything which is 
essentially a Sign--not the mere body of the Sign, which is not essentially 
such, but, so to speak, the Sign's Soul, which has its Being in its power of 
serving as intermediary between its Object and a Mind. (CP 6.455, EP 2.435; 
1908)


          A soul is another example of mind that is not "articulated within 
matter."


            EW:   I refer to the full triad of three Relations as a Sign; and 
the Representamen as a 'sign'. See Peirce's discussion of these Relations in 
8.335, 8.337. 


          The Sign is triadic, but that does not mean that it is itself a triad 
of relations.  Those two passages have to do with the classification of Signs 
based on their relations.  The Sign itself is always still the Representamen 
that has those relations, rather than another entity that is those relations.


          I do not expect to convince you, but your usage here is simply not 
Peircean, and only serves to confuse matters because he did consistently 
interchange Sign with Representamen--and once distinguished them only by 
saying, "A Sign is a Representamen with a mental Interpretant.  Possibly there 
may be Representamens that are not Signs" (EP 2.273; 1903).  In other words, 
all Signs are Representamens, but some Representamens may not be Signs.  In 
particular, any Representamen that does not determine a mental "effect upon a 
person" (EP 2.478; 1908) is not a Sign.


          Regards,


          Jon


          On Sun, Aug 21, 2016 at 3:43 PM, Edwina Taborsky <[email protected]> 
wrote:

            Jon, list
            Yes - I guess we'll have to 'agree to disagree'. I feel the same 
way towards you - as you do to me; that is, I feel that your way of thinking is 
'inconsistent with Peirce's writings' (as I read them"..and also, unpersuasive.

            Just a few comments.

            I think that your insistence that existence refers only to entities 
in states of Secondness rejects the individual experience and realities of 
several of the 10 classes of Signs: the rhematic iconic qualisign; the rhematic 
iconic legisign; the rhematic symbolic legisign, and of course, the argument 
symbolic legisign.

            I note also that Peirce himself wrote: 'generals must have a real 
existence" 5.312.  Their existence is within instantiations - a very 
Aristotelian view [rather than Platonic] and Peirce was an Aristotelian.

            No, I don't give priority to matter over mind. How do you come to 
such a conclusion? I consider that matter only exists as organized by/within 
Mind. And Mind only  exists as articulated within Matter. And I don't see where 
in Peirce you could conclude that he considered that Mind has priority over 
matter. He doesn't see them, as you seem to do, as two different entities. 
Again 'matter is effete Mind'.

            Yes,  meaning is embodied as Thirdness. Thirdness refers to the 
laws, the habits of organization - and such habits are 'embodied meaning'. They 
are the generalization of habits of the formation of, eg, protoplasm and as 
such, provide the TRUTH/meaning..of 'how to be a protoplasm. See 6.250-255.  
Meaning is also found in the Interpretant - which in its turn, will affect and 
evolve the habits of Thirdness.
            I disagree that these normative habits are not 'embodied' within 
matter. Where else could they be other than within the instantiations? As 
habits, as generals, they are real; as articulated in instances, they exist. 

            The rhematic iconic qualisign exists 'as a state in itself' within 
an individual's experience. It is a Sign - and there is no Secondness nor 
Thirdness - it operates entirely within the mode of Firstness. So, I disagree 
with your insistence that the Sign is 'Peirce's paradigm example of Thirdness'. 

            Yes, we have two different meanings of 'sign'. I refer to the full 
triad of three Relations as a Sign; and the Representamen as a 'sign'. See 
Peirce's discussion of these Relations in 8.335, 8.337.  See also where Peirce 
often refers to the Representamen alone as a sign, and also, INCLUDES its 'two 
objects' and its 'three interpretants' 8.333. My use of the capitalized Sign 
INCLUDES these Relations; that is, again - my use of 'sign' refers only to the 
Representamen. My use of 'Sign' refers to the Relations the sign/representamen 
has with the objects and interpretants. 

            I use both terms: triadic semiosic process and semiosis  - but I do 
want to emphasize that when I refer to Sign, I refer not to the Representamen, 
but to the Relations the sign/representamen has with the objects and 
interpretants.

            Edwina 
              ----- Original Message ----- 
              From: Jon Alan Schmidt 
              To: Edwina Taborsky 
              Cc: Peirce-L ; [email protected] 
              Sent: Sunday, August 21, 2016 3:57 PM
              Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] Dynamic/Immediate Object and 
Determination/Causation


              Edwina, List: 


              We may just have to let our disagreements stand at this point, 
because I find your way of thinking highly inconsistent with Peirce's writings 
(as I read them) and wholly unpersuasive.  Still, I am glad for the opportunity 
to sharpen my own thinking, and thank you (again) for the discussion.


              Strictly speaking, Qualisigns and Legisigns never exist; only 
Sinsigns, although they can and do function as Replicas of Qualisigns and 
Legisigns.  Furthermore, since all Symbols are Legisigns, Symbols never exist, 
either.  The actual spoken or written or thought word, "man," is not a Symbol 
per se; it is a Replica of a general Symbol.  The Real Symbol that is 
instantiated as "man" still has Being independently of those instantiations, 
even though it does not exist apart from them.


              You state a couple of times that you do not separate mind and 
matter, but you seem to give priority to matter over mind, whereas I think that 
Peirce clearly took the opposite view.  How can Meaning--or anything else--be 
"embodied in Thirdness"?  Embodiment is Secondness by definition.  This is why 
I have so much trouble with your statements like, "the Sign operates only 
within individuals!"  Individuals are also Secondness by definition, but Signs 
are Peirce's paradigm example of Thirdness.


              Finally, terminological ethics dictates that you really need to 
come up with a different term for "the triadic semiosic process," or whatever 
it is that you mean by "Sign," because it clearly deviates from Peirce's 
consistent usage, as others have often pointed out to you.  Why not just call 
it "semiosis"?



              Regards,


              Jon


              On Sun, Aug 21, 2016 at 8:28 AM, Edwina Taborsky 
<[email protected]> wrote:

                Jon, list, see my replies  below
                  1) JON: It sounds like you take the view that the 
immediate/dynamic/final interpretants are the same as the 
emotional/energetic/logical interpretants.  I have not definitively made up my 
mind about that, but lean more toward seeing them as distinct trichotomies.

                  EDWINA: Yes, I consider the two sets of terms to refer to the 
same actions. I disagree with adding more Interpretants to the process.

                  2) JON: The English word "man" is a Symbol, which makes it a 
Legisign or Type, which means that its Being is general.  While it indeed only 
"exists" in its instantiations--Replicas, which are Sinsigns or Tokens--it is 
Real independently of them.  This is NOT Platonism, it is Peircean 
three-category Realism.

                  EDWINA: Yes, the word man is a symbol. But the symbol exists 
only within the triadic semiosis; that is, the Legisign doesn't exist 'per se'. 
It is REAL as a general but generals only exist within instantiation. So, the 
word 'man' only functions as a symbol when it is instantiated in a particular 
triad - whether it be the single man or the Argument referring to Man. 

                  3) JON: One thing on which we do agree is that "the full 
range of meaning falls within the purview of Thirdness."  But this says nothing 
more than that meaning is a matter of the Interpretants--all three of 
them--rather than the Sign or the Objects.  I am not aware of anything in 
Peirce's writings that warrants characterizing the Immediate Interpretant as 
internal to the individual, rather than internal to the Sign.

                  EDWINA: But the Sign operates only within individuals! The 
semiosic triad doesn't operate outside of matter - whether that matter be a 
man, a tree, an insect....Mind is not separate from matter. That's Cartesian 
and Peirce is not a Cartesian. 

                  And I consider that meaning is embodied within the Object - 
after all, as Peirce wrote, 'matter is effete Mind'. 6.25; and 'matter is mind 
hidebound with habits' 6.158. Meaning is embodied within Thirdness. The object 
is a Form of Meaning..and makes more meaning in its interactions with other 
Signs [instantiations of matter]...and these develop the Habits even more.

                  4) JON: Regarding determination, as I said before, I 
understand it mainly as constraint, not causation.  The Dynamic Object can only 
generate certain Immediate Objects, and each of those can only be represented 
by certain Signs.  The Final Interpretant will be one or more of the Dynamic 
Interpretants, which will all fall within the range of the Immediate 
Interpretant, which is dictated by the Sign.

                  EDWINA: I consider that the semiosic process is more complex 
than you outline. The DO may indeed, in its own nature, have a limited range of 
data output that can become an IO - IF THAT DO were singularly causal of that 
IO. But it isn't. For example, when I, who am processing input data from an 
external DO, arrive at my own IO [and I maintain it is internal to me]...that 
same input data is merged with other input data. How do I separate them?

                  And I don't agree that the IO 'can only be represented by 
certain Signs' [I presume you mean the Representamen]. If I am receiving input 
data, a noise and a visual image, then, my ability to process this sensual 
input....is transformed by my habits/knowledge [Representamen]...and I can come 
up with various Immediate and Dynamic Interpretants. 'It's just noise; it's a 
bird; it's a plane; it's Superman. The Final Interpretant involves a community. 

                  5) JON: I am not sure what you mean when you say, "But a Sign 
operates within matter!"  Are you suggesting that Signs ONLY operate within 
matter?  I am pretty sure that Peirce would never condone such a statement.

                  EDWINA: Yes - I do suggest that Signs [by which I mean the 
triadic semiosic process as well as the category of Thirdness]...only operates 
within instantiations. And instantiations are existential in time and space.  
That means that they are material. That includes mental concepts which operate 
within the frog's leg as well as the human mind. I simply don't see Signs, both 
the triad and the Thirdness...operating outside of such particularization.

                  6) JON: Again, the Immediate
                  Object is internal to the Sign itself.  I took "individual 
site-of-semeiosis" as a substitute for "human mind"; if this is not how you are 
using that term, then I guess that I need you to explain it.

                  EDWINA: No- I don't separate Mind and Matter. Nor does 
Peirce. See his The Law of Mind, 6.150 and on; 6.255 and on. 6.277 and on.....

                  Regards,

                  Jon



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