John S., List:

JFS:  Unless anyone can find a later version, his 1908 choice of 'mark'
must be considered definitive.


I am inclined to agree with Gary F. that this is a judgment call.  In fact,
given my current concern with emphasizing that (strictly speaking) every
Sign is a Type, the fact that "mark" has an etymological sense overlapping
with "sign" is actually an argument *against *using it when referring to
the significant characters of Sign-Replicas.

Regards,

Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
Professional Engineer, Amateur Philosopher, Lutheran Layman
www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt - twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt

On Tue, Aug 14, 2018 at 2:09 PM, John F Sowa <[email protected]> wrote:

> Gary and Edwina,
>
> GF
>
>> I think it’s important to recognize your preference for “mark”
>> over “tone” as a term in semiotics or ontology is a strictly
>> personal preference (rather than a logical principle or a fact
>> of Peircean usage).
>>
>
> Peirce never changed his terminology without serious reasons.
> He chose 'tone' in 1906.  In 1908, he expressed concerns about
> that choice.  When he presented his final classification of
> signs, he deliberately replaced 'tone' with 'mark'.
>
> GF
>
>> I don’t recall ever hearing “mark” as a reference to sound, touch,
>> taste, or indeed any sensory modality other than the visual.
>>
>
> The word 'mark' has a much broader range of senses than 'tone'.
> For the definitions and examples of usage, compare the entries
> for both words on the M-W site:  https://www.merriam-webster.com/
>
> For Peirce's definitions and examples, see the Century Dictionary.
> He did not write a definition for 'tone'.  For 'mark', note his
> definition 4 and his choice of examples by Shakespeare, Milton,
> and Kant.  See the attached mark_4.jpg.
>
> Also note Peirce's comment immediately after the etymology of
> 'mark' and before definition 1:
>
>> The sense 'boundary' is older as recorded, though the sense 'sign'
>> seems logically precedent.  The two groups may indeed be from
>> entirely different groups.
>>
>
> This discussion of etymology shows that Peirce considered the word
> 'mark' to have two distinct "groups" of word senses.  Whether his
> speculation is correct is less important than the fact that he
> considered the sense of 'sign' to be "logically precedent".
>
> It's also significant that Peirce chose to write the definition
> of 'mark' and not the definition of 'tone'.  Although his work on
> the Century Dictionary was about two decades before he considered
> the choice between 'tone' and 'mark', his definitions show his
> background knowledge of the subject and his ways of thinking.
>
> For the record, note the definition of 'tone' in the Century
> Dictionary.  The range of senses and examples is much narrower
> than 'mark' and quite similar to the entry in M-W.
>
> ET
>
>> It’s a fact that Peirce struggled with finding the best names for
>> the concepts he was trying to communicate, and often changed his
>> mind; and I think that is a more significant fact than the fact
>> of which choice of name he might have made in his last change
>> of mind."
>>
>
> That's true.  We have to look at all the evidence and the context
> of each version.  That's why we need conveniently searchable
> transcriptions of *all* his MSS.
>
> But note that the word 'mark' in both the M-W and the Century
> dictionaries has a closer overlap with 'sign' than 'tone' has.
> According to Peirce's own criteria for choosing terms, that is
> an important consideration.
>
> Also note that his classification of signs at the end of 1908
> is widely cited as definitive.  After thinking and reviewing
> all the issues, he chose 'mark' as the word to include in his
> final classification.  That is not a casual change of mind.
>
> I realize that more publications about Peirce use the word
> 'tone' -- but that is primarily because his 1906 choice has
> been cited and recited for decades.  For his final and most
> complete classification, his deliberate choice should have
> very high priority.  Unless anyone can find a later version,
> his 1908 choice of 'mark' must be considered definitive.
>
> John
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