Gary,
I think that using the participial form gives the  correct notion of process 
involved in reaching the state of idealism.
M.
-----Original Message-----
From: Gary Richmond <[email protected]>
Sent: Feb 25, 2024 12:17 AM
To: Michael Shapiro <[email protected]>
Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L]

Michael,
 
What do you think of Ivo Ibri's notion that "Synechism is, in fact, a synthesis 
of Peirce&rsquo;s idealism and realism, in the way that it is possible to 
conceive a reality constituted by general relations and possibilities under 
only one substance, viz., eidos or ideality" ? 
https://link.springer.com/chapter/10.1007/978-3-031-09625-9_17
 
I ask this as I'm still unclear as to what your distinction is between 
'objective idealism' and 'objectified idealism'. Peirce's notion -- as 
controversial as it has been -- seems to me clear enough:
 
The one intelligible theory of the universe is that of objective idealism, that 
matter is effete mind, inveterate habits becoming physical laws (Peirce, CP 
6.25).
 
"Objective idealism" seems to me to be a metaphysical idea, while "objectified 
idealism" suggests (perhaps) a logical notion. In any case, and again, I'm not 
certain as to what you mean by "objectified idealism."
 
Best,
 
Gary


On Tue, Feb 20, 2024 at 3:35 AM Michael Shapiro <[email protected] 
(mailto:[email protected])> wrote:
John Sowa et al.,

In case y'all would like to read something of what I've had to say more 
recently (as in my last book, The Logic of Language, 2022), attached herewith 
is an article.
M.

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