Andrew writes: >"A" physical surplus and "the" physical surplus mean exactly the >same thing in this context.
ok > >I do not deny, but affirm "that with rising productivity there is >indeed some rough sense in which we can say that [a falling] mass >of >surplus value [corresponds to] a greater physical quantity of >means of production and wage goods." This is the ESSENCE of >anti-physicalism. ok but then what are the consequences on accumulation from this greater physical quantity of means of production and wage goods? Are you in fact keeping both the value and the use value or physical dimensions in mind when analyzing the accumulation process? I think you have bent the stick too far in the value direction. > >A "rough sense" is fine for many purposes, but not for looking at >whether surplus-labor is the sole source of profit. ok. Again I have not read your paper, and cannot assess your claims. My knowledge of the Fundamental Marxian Theory derives from Catephores' book. RB
