http://online.wsj.com/article/SB122191819568460053.html

What is the effective incidence or ultimate distributional effects of
the Paulson-Bernanke rescue plan?

The argument that the median household benefits from rescuing the
financial institutions is not absurd. If we don't rescue them, they'll
drag down the whole economy. Although a growing economy doesn't
necessarily benefit the average household (we've seen in the last few
years, the gains from productivity going almost exclusively to the
top), economic contractions have a way of being even worse for regular
people.

That would be the growth/efficiency argument in favor of rescuing the
financials. But how about the (related but distinct) equity argument?
Who wins, who loses? The devil must be in the details.

As I understand it, a public entity is being proposed to buy out the
bad assets in the financials' balance sheets.[*] At what price? How
are they going to price them? There's no market for them. The public
entity (the USAFobraproa, as I call it, because it's like Mexico's
Fobaproa after the 1994-5 Tequila crisis) will be the market maker for
those assets.

For all practical purpose, the effective, current market price of
those assets is next to zero. That's why those financials are in deep.
If the public entity paid for them their current market price, the
banks would get no rescue. So, that can only mean that taxpayers are
going to pay a price above their current market price. How much above?
 Well, apparently, $700 billion for them all.  The stockholders of
banks gain, we lose.  No?

Not unlikely, but not necessarily either. Because there's this
self-fulling prophecy thing. If, indeed, the financials collapse and
they drag down the entire economy, then indeed those assets (say,
mortgages) are garbage, because the economy will not help people
service them. On the other hand, if the financials are rescued
(regulated and monitored in their future dealings), then the economy
may improve and help people service their obligations, thus making
those assets more valuable than currently deemed, which may even turn
out a profit to the taxman.

Can somebody please measure all this stuff and straighten things out
for me? Thanks.

[*] Paulson said yesterday that, aside from those toxic assets, "our"
(speak for yourself, man) financial firms are otherwise "financially
sound." How do we assess the financial soundness of a firm but by
looking at the predominant assets in their balance sheets? That's like
saying that, aside from a person being lazy, duplicitous, and
cowardly, his character is otherwise sound. But I digress.
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