Ted Winslow writes:
"Keynes' analysis is based on ontological and anthropological foundations
different from Austrian foundations. As he himself points out in the case of
Hayek, this goes unnoticed by Austrian readers of Keynes."
Well, since Keynes pointed out the issue over 60 years ago, is it your position
that every Austrian who subsequently read Keynes also failed to notice the
different ontological and anthropological foundations?
David Shemano
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