Could someone help me out on the recent vote for funds for the
automakers. I read that the democrats in the senate gave up the effort
because they didn't have the 60 votes necessary to end a filibuster.
But how did this really work---I guess my question concerns the workings
of the American political system---was there an actual vote where a
majority voted for the bill but not 60? Or was there just a
determination by the democrats that there would not be 60 votes for the
bill so there was no vote. Or did the republicans threaten a filibuster
if the democrats tried to move to a vote and the democrats decide not to
call a vote to override it or . . .
Apologies for such simple questions---but I am confused. According to
the paper "The measure was defeated 52-35 on Thursday night in the
Senate when it fell short of the 60 votes it needed." So, it seems like
the measure passed. Where does the filibuster enter in here, when would
it have happened, and why did the democrats just give up without a
formal test--or was that what the vote was?.
Thanks,
Marty Hart-Landsberg
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