I have a question: how does fictitious capital differ from the present
discounted value of an expected income stream? Isn't it true that
_some_ fictitious capital has a basis in reality (the production of
surplus-value), so that strictly speaking, it isn't all fictitious?
(of course, it's hard to know ahead of time which capital is truly
fictitious and which isn't.)
--
Jim Devine / "Segui il tuo corso, e lascia dir le genti." (Go your own
way and let people talk.) -- Karl, paraphrasing Dante.
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