is it right to think of "fictitious capital" as referring to cases where Tobin's Q is greater than one? (One version of Q is (stock-market valuation of real assets)/(actual value of those assets), though Tobin uses the reproduction cost of those assets in the denominator.)
On Thu, Mar 12, 2009 at 8:18 AM, Anthony D'Costa <[email protected]> wrote: > India's richest men lose billions. Fictitious capital or wealth destruction? -- Jim Devine / "Segui il tuo corso, e lascia dir le genti." (Go your own way and let people talk.) -- Karl, paraphrasing Dante. _______________________________________________ pen-l mailing list [email protected] https://lists.csuchico.edu/mailman/listinfo/pen-l
