me: > is it right to think of "fictitious capital" as referring to cases > where Tobin's Q is greater than one? (One version of Q is > (stock-market valuation of real assets)/(actual value of those > assets), though Tobin uses the reproduction cost of those assets in > the denominator.)
Shane writes: > What difference is there between the "actual [monetary] value of real > assets" and the reproduction cost of those assets? the actual value would reflect the possible _benefits_ to their owners from the use of the assets. -- Jim Devine / "Segui il tuo corso, e lascia dir le genti." (Go your own way and let people talk.) -- Karl, paraphrasing Dante. _______________________________________________ pen-l mailing list [email protected] https://lists.csuchico.edu/mailman/listinfo/pen-l
