On 6/22/09, Bill O'Connor said: > Robert Naiman . . . writes: > >> * * * >> wouldn't a "general strike" be illegal in the U.S. >> under Taft-Hartley? > > Absolutely illegal in the U.S.
Apart from this being, at best, a theoretical metalegal" but not real-life legal question and from the related fantastical factual premise of the above ruminations (i.e., that it is not culturally/politically unrealistic even in light of presently ongoing circumstances to posit anything close to a general strike in the U.S.), what provisions of the Taft-Hartley Act (whether as originally enacted or as since amended) or, for that matter, anywhere else in U.S. law make a "general strike" as that term is commonly understood "absolutely illegal in the U.S."?
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