Jim,

This has always confused me, and perhaps you can enlighten.

Taking some poetic license, my understanding is that von Mises begat von Hayek, von Hayek begat Friedmann and the Chicago School, and Friedmann and the Chicago School begat neoclassical economics in its modern form (Becker, etc.). I know that neoclassical economics developed independent of this thread, but my understanding is that by the 1980s, if not sooner, the threads had merged. I also know the Austrians claim Schumpeter, who to my mind is outside the neoclassical fold or at least agnostic and indifferent to many neoclassical teachings. I also am familiar with Hayek's reply to Galbraith on the "dependence effect" and how Hayek defended economic theory by declaring preference formation to be outside economic's scope, but this seems to me to be exactly what neoclassical econ does. (Maybe the Austrians do include history, except when responding to Galbraith.)

So exactly how and on what points is the "Austrian" school officially anti-neoclassical?

    Marsh

On 8/8/2010 3:00 PM, [email protected] wrote:
Date: Sat, 7 Aug 2010 14:40:26 -0700
From: Jim Devine <[email protected]>
Subject: [Pen-l] quotation du jour
To: Pen-l <[email protected]>
Message-ID:
	<[email protected]>
Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8

Writing to Ayn Rand, Ludwig von Mises wrote "You have the courage to
tell the masses what no politician told them: you are inferior and all
the improvements in your conditions which you simply take for granted
you owe to the effort of men who are better than you."

quoted in Corey Robin's review of two books about Ayn Rand in the
NATION, June 7, 2010, p. 26. Strangely, (Robin says that von Mises was
"one of the presiding eminences of neoclassical economics." Perhaps
this refers to neoliberal economics, since von Mises' so-called
"Austrian" school is officially anti-neoclassical.)
-- Jim Devine "All science would be superfluous if the form of appearance of things directly coincided with their essence." -- KM


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Dr. Marshall Feldman, PhD
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