On Tue, Jul 19, 2011 at 7:53 AM, Ted Winslow <[email protected]> wrote: > His conception of capitalist motives has much in common with Marx's (Keynes's > animosity to Marx preventing him, with the exception of one brief note, from > noticing the extent to which this was so). This includes the treatment of > them as "passions" in Hegel's sense. The "results shared in by the community > at large" to which they led without conscious intent on the part of those so > motivated was the creation ultimately of the "material abundance" that was a > prerequisite for the transcendence of capitalism in the above sense. >
This was my impression also, but I am not a scholar of either man's work, so I'll defer to the experts. Anyway this just raises the larger question which I have never really understood: what was the reason for Keynes' animosity to Marx? And conversely what is the reason for current-day Marxists' animosity to Keynes? -raghu. _______________________________________________ pen-l mailing list [email protected] https://lists.csuchico.edu/mailman/listinfo/pen-l
