It is fully possible that theology and culture were no real impediment to 
commerce in the relatively static pre-Modern world, but were impediments to 
incorporating the dynamic/revolutionary aspects of the scientific and 
industrial revolutions.

David Shemano

-----------

I agree. It also smacks of a neocon economic theory of some sort.

My thought was the whole thesis was wrong, and not just for the Islamic 
world. For example, the Medici bankers of Florence had no trouble with their 
Catholicism. One of them was even elected Pope Somebody, noted for his 
blatant corruption. I assume he got there by buying cardinal favors, and 
probably also controlling the Vatican Bank. Wiki Vatican Bank for fun.

The other problem with this idea is it obscures the more obvious 
economic-historical reasons for both faster and slower development. The 
equation goes roughly more and stronger feudalism, slower development toward 
industrial capitalism; weaker and less feudalism, faster development toward 
industrial capitalism.

Now this development rate stuff is usually used to sanctify capitalism and 
democratic liberalism. I don't think I buy that either. I think if we let 
the capitalist get going in a society, they eventually eat up the whole 
society.

What do I mean by feudalism? The usual suspects: oppressive regimes of 
wealth ruled by a combination of monarchy, landed aristocracies, and 
religious social institutions. Look at the histories of Latin America or 
Spain for that matter.

The faster growth toward industrial capitalism was characterized by the 
disappearance of these feudal institutions in mid-17thC Netherlands. We (us 
USers) didn't have aristocrats but we did import the English landed estates 
system, especially in the South. Virgina the first slave state, had to creat 
slave class to make up for not enough peasants. Viola, the cotton states 
development was retarded in comparison with New England where the first 
factories and railroads were built.

The early or radical enlightenment in England and the Netherlands occurred 
simultaneously with boom and bust economies, modern capitalism, the 
scientific revolution and global colonialism.

I think it was Weber(?) who thought disciplinarian Protestantism facilitated 
the growth of industrial capitalism. I am not sure I buy that, maybe a 
little. What I think was responsible was the growing wealth of the merchant 
class during colonial development. And then think about where that wealth 
came from: colonial imported goods like sugar, tea, coffee, tobacco... 
plantation-consumer goods for the european urban classes.

I simply don't know enough history of the Islamic world except to speculate. 
The Near East and North Africa probably resembled Latin American societies: 
brutal colonial administrations, wealthy landed class, religious social 
institutions and a mass peasantry. In their case the colonial administration 
was the Ottoman Empire.

I don't know if the above is really an explanation or just a description. 

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