http://thenextrecession.wordpress.com/2012/04/27/effective-demand-liquidity-traps-and-debt-deflation/

One of the main issues for me is whether Keynesian claims about the lack of 
‘effective demand’ constitute a causal theory of crisis or just a 
tautology.  Is not the lack of effective demand really a description of a slump 
rather than its cause?  It’s the same problem with the explanation of 
depression as due to a 
liquidity trap i.e we get to ‘zero bound’ interest rates and there is 
still no new spending on investment or consumption.  In the Great Depression, 
the economy becomes ‘stuck’ in a trap of 
unwillingness to spend – the velocity of money line is well below 
average.  This is the problem, says Keynes and Krugman.  And anyway, why has it 
happened?  Because there is an 
unwillingness to spend!  In other words, there appears to be no rational 
explanation for why the velocity of money drops suddenly in the Great 
Depression or the Great Recession except that it does. 
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