Marx:

In the period of manufacture properly so called,
it is, on the other hand, the commercial supremacy
that gives industrial predominance. Hence the
preponderant rĂ´le that the colonial system plays
at that time.

"The period of manufacturing properly so called" predated industrial
capitalism in England and pretty much the rest of the world.  The
political economy of these times was mercantilism, the doctrines that
Smith and Ricardo refuted.

I don't know about Brenner.  I confess I have never read him.  But
Louis Proyect's argument that slavery and servitude under colonial
(or, more recently, Apartheid rule) were directly and immediately
forms of capitalist production insofar as they were subsidiaries to
European industrial (or, in the South African case, 20th century's)
capitalism and reinforced the accumulation of capital in the European
metropolis is not persuasive.

If the distinction between (1) a general mode of production and (2) a
concrete social-historical formation dominated by that mode of
production is to be useful (and without this distinction Marx's work
doesn't make sense), then the denomination of *capitalist production*
excludes the extra-economic exploitation of labor.  Including those
other forms under the rubric of *capitalist production* dilutes its
"specific essence" -- to use Marx's formula.

Louis seems to believe that Marx drew this distinction because he
lacked a proper understanding of the conditions outside Europe or its
overseas Anglo offshoots.  But Marx's distinction is sufficiently
general to withstand corrections to alleged lacunae in his knowledge
of universal history.  All along his intellectual life, Marx kept
correcting himself as his knowledge of political economy and history
deepened -- yet the distinction between mode of production and a
historically concrete society can be found in his earliest works (e.g.
the German Ideology, where the category of mode of production is first
introduced in its full generality).

Of course -- if one so desires -- this can be reduced to a mere
terminological dispute.  And everyone is free to choose a different
content for categories that Marx used to denote very specific
phenomena (that have co-relatives in today's capitalism).  Each of us
can have her/his own private terminology, not necessarily
self-consistent or consistent with Marx's usage.  But then the
communication of ideas among people who use Marx as a reference
becomes impossible.

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