On Tue, 23 Jan 2007 11:13:26 -0500, "Charlie Coleman" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> said:
> Are you saying you want to define a block of time as being a 'day'. Then, > you pass 2 other date/time strings to see how many 'days' it was in use? Yep. > > So, for example, 6am to 6pm is 43200 seconds. Yep. > > And if you passed date/times of 01/01/2007 1:00:00 am and 01/01/2007 > 4:00:00 am, you would expect the result to be 0.25 or would you expect it > to be 0 A day is 6am to 6am (not 6pm like my original post, sorry) therefore the above uses up one day since it is within a 6am-6am timespan. > And if you passed > dates spanning days, like 01/01/2007 12:00:00 pm and 01/05/07 12:00:00 pm > would you expect the number of "days" to be 8 or 4. > That would be 4 -- Alan Bourke [EMAIL PROTECTED] -- http://www.fastmail.fm - The professional email service _______________________________________________ Post Messages to: ProFox@leafe.com Subscription Maintenance: http://leafe.com/mailman/listinfo/profox OT-free version of this list: http://leafe.com/mailman/listinfo/profoxtech ** All postings, unless explicitly stated otherwise, are the opinions of the author, and do not constitute legal or medical advice. This statement is added to the messages for those lawyers who are too stupid to see the obvious.
