ee=:(]%2) > ?~@$
   ee
0.5 > ?~@$
   ff=: 13 :'0.5 > ?~x$y'
   ff
0.5 > [: ?~ $
   5 ff 8
0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1
0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0

J is so smart, it eliminate the need for  *  

   hh=: 13 :' ?~x$y'
   hh
[: ?~ $
   ]A=:5 hh 8
4 7 1 6 0 5 3 2
4 2 3 1 5 7 0 6
7 3 5 4 1 2 6 0
5 3 2 4 1 7 6 0
2 5 4 0 3 6 7 1
   0.5 > A
0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1
0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0
      
Mind boggling!

Linda


-----Original Message-----
From: programming-boun...@forums.jsoftware.com
[mailto:programming-boun...@forums.jsoftware.com] On Behalf Of Devon
McCormick
Sent: Wednesday, November 07, 2012 12:56 PM
To: J-programming forum
Subject: Re: [Jprogramming] Arc consistency in J

At first glance, I thought the right tine of this fork
   (2 %~ ]) > [: (? ]) $
could be replaced by an idiom I frequently use
   (?@$)
but then realized that what we need is
   (?~@$)
so "dd" can be written as
   (]%2) > ?~@$


On Wed, Nov 7, 2012 at 1:31 AM, Michal D. <michal.dobrog...@gmail.com>wrote:

> Thanks Roger, that makes sense now.  The history of J is one of it`s 
> intriguing aspects for sure.
>
> Re: Linda: I would call it a v(erb) as opposed to a N(oun).  But what 
> do I know? ;-)
>
> Mike
>
> On Tue, Nov 6, 2012 at 8:53 AM, Roger Hui <rogerhui.can...@gmail.com>
> wrote:
>
> > 'noun verb verb' is a fork and is interpreted as 'noun"_ verb verb'
> (noun"_
> > is a constant verb whose result is noun).  
> > http://keiapl.org/anec/#nvv
> >
> > 'verb verb noun' can not be made into a fork because 'verb noun' 
> > already has an interpretation (*viz*., apply verb to noun).
> >
> >
> > On Tue, Nov 6, 2012 at 8:47 AM, Michal D. 
> > <michal.dobrog...@gmail.com
> > >wrote:
> >
> > > > Change from a Noun to a verb, view its tacit version and apply 
> > > > it to
> > > data:
> > > >
> > > >     dd=: 13 :'(y%2) > (?]) x$y'
> > > >
> > > >     dd
> > > > (2 %~ ]) > [: (? ]) $
> > > >
> > >
> > > That is quite cool.  I'm surprised that you can automatically get 
> > > the
> > tacit
> > > definition.  Does this work for any explicitly defined verb?
> > >
> > > I'm also surprised at the way %~ came out.  Do left hand arguments 
> > > not require a & to bind the argument?  It is strange to me that 
> > > (1) works
> but
> > > (2) does not.  It seems to me that (3) is the logical way to 
> > > phrase
> > either
> > > of them (ie. a fork with a constant right / left side).  To 
> > > reiterate,
> > why
> > > does (1) work?
> > >
> > > (1)    (2 %~ ]) > [: (? ]) $
> > > (2)    (] % 2) > [: (? ]) $
> > > (3a)   (2: %~ ]) > [: (? ]) $
> > > (3b)   (] %~ 2:) > [: (? ]) $
> > > (4a)   (%&2 ]) > [: (? ]) $      NB. incorrect (hook caught me out
> > again)!
> > > (4b)   ([: %&2 ]) > [: (? ]) $   NB. correct
> > >
> > > Cheers,
> > >
> > > Mike
> > > ------------------------------------------------------------------
> > > ---- For information about J forums see 
> > > http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm
> > >
> > --------------------------------------------------------------------
> > -- For information about J forums see 
> > http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm
> >
> ----------------------------------------------------------------------
> For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm
>



--
Devon McCormick, CFA
^me^ at acm.
org is my
preferred e-mail
----------------------------------------------------------------------
For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm

----------------------------------------------------------------------
For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm

Reply via email to