On Wed, 2 Feb 2022, Andrew P wrote:
A question that I have is: can V0 V1 V2 V3 V4 can become V0 V1 V2 (V3 V4) instead of V0 V1 (V2 V3 V4)?
Nope. A way to think about it is that the parser eats verbs from the right, as many as it can handle. So if you start with V0 V1 V2 V3 V4 V5, it first eats the rightmost 3 verbs, yielding V0 V1 V2 (V3 V4 V5). Then it again eats the three rightmost verbs, yielding V0 (V1 V2 (V3 V4 V5)). Then, because there are only two verbs to be eaten, it reluctantly stops at two.
Note that conjunctions and adverbs group the opposite way--from the left. So, for instance, V0 C1 V2 C3 V4 is (V0 C1 V2) C3 V4. And V0 C1 V2 A3 is (V0 C1 V2) A3.
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