Is this not the same problem as specifying the fill used by monadic > ?
I suppose the two cases are different because > has rank 0 whereas ; has
rank _ , so raze can calculate the result shape
in advance.
Nonetheless, you'd still get stuck on problems like ;"1 . That's a more
common situation for me.
Anyway, for those who have the need (not I), this might be handy:
fill =: 2 : '(1 = [: u (1 $~ $)&.>) 4 : ''y =. x } y'' n ,: u '
; fill 32 (i. 2 3) ; 3 4
0 1 2
3 4 5
3 4 32
> fill 32 (i. 2 3) ; 3 4
0 1 2
3 4 5
3 4 32
32 32 32
,&:>/ fill 32 (i. 2 3) ; 3 4
0 1 2
3 4 5
3 4 32
-Dan
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