Folks,
I wonder if anything could be said about the distribution of a random variate
x, where
x = N(0,1)/N(0,1)
Obviously x is pathological because it could be 0/0. If we exclude this point,
so the set is {x/(0/0)}, does x have a well defined distribution? or does it
exist a distribution that approximates x.
(The case could be generalized of course to N(mu1, sigma1)/N(mu2, sigma2) and
one still couldn't get away from the singularity.)
Any insight or reference to related discussion is appreciated.
Horace Tso
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