On Wed, Aug 29, 2007 at 10:39:17AM -0700, Horace Tso wrote:
> Folks,
>
> I wonder if anything could be said about the distribution of a random variate
> x, where
>
> x = N(0,1)/N(0,1)
>
> Obviously x is pathological because it could be 0/0. If we exclude this
> point, so the set is {x/(0/0)}, does x have a well defined distribution? or
> does it exist a distribution that approximates x.
I think this is the standard Cauchy distribution:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy_distribution
--
Daniel Lakeland
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
http://www.street-artists.org/~dlakelan
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