Hi, A contract can still exist if nothing is signed. You'd have to consider your communication, work flow and all sorts of factors as well as invoices. A contract can be implied also. It's just harder to prove.
Cheers, Rim On 26/06/2013, at 10:19 AM, Sebastian Porto <[email protected]> wrote: > Hi All > > Hopefully someone in the list can clarify this for me. Let's say that you do > contract work for a client but there is never a signed contract, just the > invoices to prove that the work was done. > > Are the IP and the code two different issues? Who owns the IP for this work? > Who owns the code? Morality aside, what will hold in a court of law? > > Thanks > Sebastian > > -- > You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups > "Ruby or Rails Oceania" group. > To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an > email to [email protected]. > To post to this group, send email to [email protected]. > Visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/rails-oceania. > For more options, visit https://groups.google.com/groups/opt_out. > > -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Ruby or Rails Oceania" group. To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email to [email protected]. To post to this group, send email to [email protected]. Visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/rails-oceania. For more options, visit https://groups.google.com/groups/opt_out.
