Don't mind you contradicting him at all Warren.
Your source looks more reliable than mine.

Plus, I take great delight in pointing out when he's wrong myself.
Forwarding those sources on to him now. ;)



On Wed, Jun 26, 2013 at 12:02 PM, Warren Seen <[email protected]> wrote:

> I hate to contradict your family member Craig, but as far as I've been
> informed, and can find online, Phil's right, we follow the same principle
> here, in which independent contractors DO own the copyright to their work,
> unless they complete some form of copyright assignment to the client.
>
> sources:
> http://www.davies.com.au/content/37/iplaw/copyright
>
> http://www.business.gov.au/BusinessTopics/Independentcontractors/Documents/Independentcontractorstheessentialhandbook.pdf(p20)
>
> "Without a written contract that attributes ownership of IP to your hirer,
> you will automatically own the IP. If your hirer wishes to own the IP, this
> must be specifically outlined in the contract. You may wish to seek legal
> advice about clauses relating to IP before signing the contract."
>
> This is different for employees, where the copyright DOES go to the
> employer automatically.
>
> Again, this is all speaking from personal research, and with no legal
> background - I guess at the end of the day, this just underlines the fact
> that you shouldn't rely on people on the internet for legal advice, as
> you'll get a multitude of opinions. :)
>
> On 26/06/2013, at 11:44 AM, Phil Oye <[email protected]> wrote:
>
> > IANAL either, but that is consistent with my understanding.
> >
> > In the US, this is called "Work For Hire". Normally authors retain
> copyright, UNLESS it is work for hire, then the employer retains the
> copyright.
> > https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Work_for_hire
> >
> > This makes intuitive sense to me. Otherwise, you would need to
> explicitly license the work to the client otherwise they have no rights to
> it even though they paid for it.
> >
> > p.
> >
> > On 26/06/2013, at 11:11 AM, Craig Read <[email protected]> wrote:
> >
> >> IANAL, but I have one in the family who specialized in IP and asked him
> the question.
> >>
> >> His response was to assume they own everything as you produced the work
> for them, unless you verbally agreed otherwise.
> >>
> >>
> >> On Wed, Jun 26, 2013 at 10:19 AM, Sebastian Porto <[email protected]>
> wrote:
> >> Hi All
> >>
> >> Hopefully someone in the list can clarify this for me. Let's say that
> you do contract work for a client but there is never a signed contract,
> just the invoices to prove that the work was done.
> >>
> >> Are the IP and the code two different issues? Who owns the IP for this
> work? Who owns the code? Morality aside, what will hold in a court of law?
> >>
> >> Thanks
> >> Sebastian
> >>
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> >>
> >>
> >> --
> >> Craig Read
> >>
> >> @Catharz
> >> https://github.com/Catharz
> >> http://stackoverflow.com/users/158893/catharz
> >>
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-- 
Craig Read

@Catharz
https://github.com/Catharz
http://stackoverflow.com/users/158893/catharz

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