In a message dated 11/9/2004 5:00:06 PM Eastern Standard Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
Can't the state
regulate the use of its property?  Can't one say that failure to do so
might amount to state action?
Seems at least plausible that if you can make that work, you can find state action in the failure of a local government agency to prevent assaults on public sidewalks.  After all, they are public property.
 
Jim Henderson
Senior Counsel
ACLJ
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