Re: charlatanism

2002-08-18 Thread Alypius Skinner


- Original Message -
From: fabio guillermo rojas [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 Example from my professional life: As is probably obvious, I'm not
 an economist - I'm a sociologist who takes economics very seriously
 and I sometimes use economic tools in my research. So I'm always
 in a position of explaining economic ideas to non-economists and I
 frequently find that people tend to avoid economic issues.


Rodney Stark and some other sociologists have very fruitfully used supply
and demand for public goods to explain the rise and fall of religious
bodies.  They also discuss religious entrepreneurship and the attempt to
impose religious monopolies or religious cartels to fend off competition.
This school has also explained the secularization of western Europe as a
supply side failure.  Within this genre,  I regard Stark and Bainbridge's
_The Future of Religion_ as a latter day classic.  Since many sociologists
seem to have an aversion to both religion and economics, I wonder whether
their studies have adversely affected their professional reputations.
(Also, I regard Stark's textbook _Sociology_ as the only introductory
sociology textbook so interesting it can be read for pleasure, but I don't
think it is in print anymore.)

~Alypius Skinner






RE: charlatanism

2002-08-14 Thread Alex Robson

John Hull wrote:

Example 3: Subjective Utility

Most of the utility 'functions' occurring in
neoclassical microeconomics...are not well defined--as
Henri Poincare pointed out to Leon Walras.  In fact,
the only conditions required of them is that they be
twice differentiable, the first derivative being
positive and the second negative.  Obviously,
infinitely many functions satisfy these mild
requirements.  THIS OFTEN SUFFICES IN SOME BRANCHES OF
PURE MATHEMATICS  BUT THE FACTUAL (OR EMPIRICAL)
SCIENCES ARE MORE DEMANDING: HERE ONE USES ONLY
FUNCTIONS THAT ARE DEFINED EXPLICITLY...OR IMPLICITLY.
 Finally, experimental studies have shown that
preferences and subjective estimates of utility and
risk do not satisfy the assumptions of expected
utility theory.

In short, THE USE OF UTILITY FUNCTIONS IS OFTEN
MATHEMATICALLY SLOPPY AND EMPIRICALLY UNWARRANTED.
Now, rational choice models make heavy use of both
subjective utilities and subjective probabilities, as
well as of the simplistic hypothesis that selfishness
is the only motivation of human behavior.  Not
suprisingly, NONE OF THESE MODELS FITS THE FACT.
Hence, although at first sight they look scientific,
as a matter of fact they are pseudoscientific.


My only comment on this is: it is a silly, uninformed criticism of
economics.  Economics may or may not be pseudoscientific, but not for
these reasons.  First, it has been shown long ago, by Gerard Debreu and
others, that utility functions are not needed in order arrive at many of the
important results in microeconomic theory.  Second, the claim that
economists use the hypothesis that selfishness is the only motivation of
human behaviour is simply wrong, wrong, wrong.  Finally, yes, economists
often use models that are false and don't fit some data.  So do physicists
when they assume away the existence of any frictions.  Is physics also a
pseudoscience for this reason?


Alex






Re: charlatanism

2002-08-14 Thread Mark D Isaacs

Please Remove




Re: charlatanism

2002-08-14 Thread Christopher Auld



On Tue, 13 Aug 2002, john hull quotes Mario Bunge:

 In short, THE USE OF UTILITY FUNCTIONS IS OFTEN
 MATHEMATICALLY SLOPPY AND EMPIRICALLY UNWARRANTED.

It is an interesting regularity that some non-economists -- particularly
philosophers and physicists, and Bunge is both -- seem to think even the
most cursory glance at economic theory is sufficient background to
generate criticism such as this unfortunate piece.

Amongst many other misunderstandings of basic theory, Bunge's point above,
which he repeats several times, confuses the empirical content of the
assumptions that underpin a theory with the empirical content of the
theory itself.  Systematic violation of (expected) utility theory in
experiments does not mean that theories based on those assumptions are
empirically unwarranted any more than the insight that there are not
just two people in two countries using two factors of production to
produce two products invalidates any predictions of trade models based on
those assumptions.

The paragraph about utility functions needing explicit or implicit
functional forms is just bizarre.


Cheers,

Chris Auld
Department of Economics
University of Calgary
[EMAIL PROTECTED]







Re: charlatanism

2002-08-14 Thread Marc . Poitras



The real charlatans in academia are the many frauds who build their whole
careers by getting their names put on coauthored papers to which they have
not legitimately contributed.


Marc Poitras







Re: charlatanism

2002-08-14 Thread AdmrlLocke

Does anyone think, at least in the excerpts we read, that the article 
attacked libertarian or libertarian-leaning economics as much as it attacked 
economics generally?


David Levenstam




Re: charlatanism

2002-08-14 Thread Anton Sherwood

[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 The real charlatans in academia are the many frauds who build
 their whole careers by getting their names put on coauthored
 papers to which they have not legitimately contributed.

That's a sort of embezzlement; but `charlatan' implies
that the *content* of the papers is fraudulent.

-- 
Anton Sherwood, http://www.ogre.nu/




Re: charlatanism

2002-08-14 Thread Fred Foldvary

--- john hull [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 The ALL CAPS lines are my emphasis.

I think it is better to use other symbols, such as *caps*, since when they
get copied, one may want to revert to u/l.
 
 NEO-AUSTRIAN
 ECONOMICS, EVEN CLAIM THAT THEIR THEORIES ARE TRUE A
 PRIORI.

This means a priori to specific history, but still posterior to experience,
however general.
Most of textbook microeconomics is a priori.
For example, when deriving the law of demand, do they justify this with data?

Fred Foldvary

=
[EMAIL PROTECTED]




Re: charlatanism

2002-08-14 Thread fabio guillermo rojas


 Does anyone think, at least in the excerpts we read, that the article 
 attacked libertarian or libertarian-leaning economics as much as it attacked 
 economics generally?
 David Levenstam

It's typical to say that bad science is X, and my political
opponents just happen to do X. IMO, it is usually easier to attack an
economic theory in this roundabout way than just to confront the idea
head on because you really don't have to understand what's going on.

Example from my professional life: As is probably obvious, I'm not
an economist - I'm a sociologist who takes economics very seriously
and I sometimes use economic tools in my research. So I'm always
in a position of explaining economic ideas to non-economists and I
frequently find that people tend to avoid economic issues. For
example, when I explain human capital theory to people, they seem
horrified and obsess over whether their sacred cow - education -
can be thought of as something as dirty as an investment. Instead of
asking whether the idea is internally coherent and has empirical
support, they go nuts over just the wording of the theory.

Similarly, I find that these articles that trash economics because it is
psuedoscientific do the same - they obsess over the wording (the use
of math) rather than think real hard about the intuitions behind things.
Of course, there is always bad research hiding behind equations - but
the equations just express an idea - that can be debated - in a coherent
way. 

Fabio 





Re: charlatanism

2002-08-14 Thread fabio guillermo rojas

  The real charlatans in academia are the many frauds who build
  their whole careers by getting their names put on coauthored
  papers to which they have not legitimately contributed.
 That's a sort of embezzlement; but `charlatan' implies
 that the *content* of the papers is fraudulent.
 Anton Sherwood, http://www.ogre.nu/

It is a sort of charlatanry about the content of your career - you sort of
imply you've done a bunch of original stuff by associating yourself with
the successful. Fabio 





Re: charlatanism

2002-08-14 Thread AdmrlLocke


In a message dated 8/14/02 1:47:34 PM, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:

 [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 The real charlatans in academia are the many frauds who build
 their whole careers by getting their names put on coauthored
 papers to which they have not legitimately contributed.

That's a sort of embezzlement; but `charlatan' implies
that the *content* of the papers is fraudulent.

-- 
Anton Sherwood, http://www.ogre.nu/ 

Does anyone think that the real charlatans in science include the people who 
do research which always concludes that the federal government must fund 
more research (in other words, pay the researchers more) and impose new, 
draconian regulations over our lives to save us all from alleged 
environmental catastrophes?

David Levenstam




RE: charlatanism

2002-08-14 Thread Michael Etchison

fabio guillermo rojas:

Similarly, I find that these articles that trash economics because it
is psuedoscientific do the same - they obsess over the wording (the
use of math) rather than think real hard about the intuitions behind
things. Of course, there is always bad research hiding behind equations
- but the equations just express an idea - that can be debated - in a
coherent way. 

Speaking up for the innumerates here --
Part of my objection may be my inability to use the tools.  But I cling
to the notion that part of the objection is that some aspects of
economic activity (to say nothing of activity which has been subjected
to economics imperialism) _cannot_ be the sort of thing to which
mathematical manipulation, in particular equations, can be properly
applied.

Michael
Michael E. Etchison
Texas Wholesale Power Report
MLE Consulting
www.mleconsulting.com
1423 Jackson Road
Kerrville, TX 78028
(830) 895-4005





Re: charlatanism

2002-08-14 Thread john hull


--- Fred Foldvary [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
I think it is better to use other symbols, such as
*caps*, since when they get copied, one may want to
revert to u/l.

Sorry.  Yahoo email doesn't give me many options.  I
was hesitant about yelling, which I guess is what all
caps is.  I'll try something else in the future. 
Thanks.

Most of textbook microeconomics is a priori.  For
example, when deriving the law of demand, do they
justify this with data?

By that reasoning, aren't all the results obtained in
Euclid's Elements assumed a priori?  I took the law of
demand, along with most textbook economics, to be
derived axiomatically rather than assumed.  Or is that
what a priori means?  Given reasonable assumptions
(axioms), does that mean that economic findings are
valid without being 'scientific,' i.e. rigoriously
tested?  It seems to me yes, but when data doesn't
match theory, one must search for new or modified
axioms.  Thoughts on that?

By the way, I was particularly interested in Bunge's
assertions that a scientific research program is to
find the functional forms between variables.  Should
economists spend more time on that program?  It seems
like it would be unnecessary in many contexts, e.g.
the Tragedy of the Commons where a result can obtain
by merely knowing that the production function is
concave, inter alia.  But then again, maybe not.  

It seems that alot of people critique econ. without
learning it, and Bunge seems to be in that school of
thought.  But it is good to take critiques seriously. 
I bet there are a lot of psychic mediums and polygraph
artists who actually believe what they're doing it
valid and real.  It's probably best to double check
once in a while and make sure we're not headed down
that road.

I still maintain that Bunge's ridiculous assertion
that economics assumes greed/money as the only human
motivator is held by most people.  I think it could be
addressed by including the definition of rationality
as the structure of preferences rather than the
content of preferences in basic economics education. 
I think educators are doing a great disservice by not
making this clear early on.

-jsh

__
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Re: charlatanism

2002-08-14 Thread Fred Foldvary

--- john hull [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Given reasonable assumptions
 (axioms), does that mean that economic findings are
 valid without being 'scientific,' i.e. rigoriously
 tested?

If the logic is valid and the premises true, then the conclusion is sound and
therefore fully scientific.
Scientific should not be equated with tested.
For example, the law of diminishing returns is scientific in being true, even
if one does not test for it.
Indeed, that law is so scientific that if one tested it and found that the
outcome was inconsistent with that law, one would question the data before
one would question the law.

  It seems to me yes, but when data doesn't
 match theory, one must search for new or modified
 axioms.  Thoughts on that?

If it is a general theory that has already been warranted, one would first
examine the data and testing methods.
But if it is a hypothesis about something specific, such as the consequences
of the euro, then when the data rejects the hypothesis, one would search for
a new one.
 
 I still maintain that Bunge's ridiculous assertion
 that economics assumes greed/money as the only human
 motivator is held by most people.

How do you know?
*That* is an example of a hypothesis that needs testing.

  I think it could be
 addressed by including the definition of rationality
 as the structure of preferences rather than the
 content of preferences in basic economics education. 

Agreed.  And also, rationality has to do with the choice of means in the
pursuit of ends, namely economizing or optimizing.

Fred Foldvary

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[EMAIL PROTECTED]