Re: The difference between a 'chair' concept and a 'mathematical concept' ;)

2006-10-02 Thread markpeaty

I hope you will excuse my butting in here, but I was passing through on
a different mission
and became disturbed by reading some earlier posts of this thread.

My 2 cents worth:
I tend to think that David Nyman has the more sceptically acceptable
slant on this. Mathematics and logic are constructions of the human
brain. They are extremely useful, in appropriate contexts, because they
allow effective, efficient and economical representations of processes
in the world.

There is no particularly good reason however to think that mathematical
objects exist outside of human brains or phenotypic extensions such as
computers. I think it IS fair to say though that, for example, numbers
and formulae written on a page or blackboard are literal extenstions of
the constructs within the active mathematical mind.

That so much of what occurs in 'the world' CAN be represented by
numbers and other mathematical/logical objects and processes, is better
expained by assuming that the great 'IT' of noumenal nature is actually
made up of many simple elements [taken firstly in the general sense].
This underlying simplicity which yet combines and permutates itself
into vast complexity, is something we infer with good reason - it
works! But you cannot DEDUCE from it that numbers and other
mathematical objects exist 'out there', except in those particular
regions of space time that happen now to be mathematically active
brains.

Regards
Mark Peaty

[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 David Nyman wrote:

  I fail to see any 'knock-down' character in this argument. Peter says
  that mathematical concepts don't refer to anything 'external', and on
  one level I agree with him. But they are surely derived from the
  contingent characteristics of experience, and AFAICS experience in this
  context reduces to the contents of our brains. So 'infinite sets' is
  just a model (brain material at another level of description) which IMO
  counts as a 'physical notion' unless you start off as an idealist. Put
  simply, you can't think mathematical thoughts without using your brain
  to instantiate them - and you don't literally have to instantiate an
  'infinite set' in the extended sense in order to manipulate a model
  with the formal characteristics you impute to this concept. In fact,
  the inability to convert infinite and transfinite sets into physical
  notions is excellent empirical evidence that they *don't* exist in any
  literal sense -  they don't need to, as their usefulness is as limit
  cases within models, not as literal existents (nobody has ever
  literally deployed an infinite set).

 A particular concrete (brain) instantiation of a mathematical concept
 can't be equivalent to the math concept itself.  I pointed out that
 many different physical processes can implement the *same* algorithm -
 this shows that the mathematical concept of the algorithm can't be
 identified with any particular physical instantiation of it.  Read up
 on the failure of simple Identity theories of mind.  Surely you
 understand the difference between a *Class* (an abstract actegory) and
 an *Object* (a particular instance of the concept).?  The Class is not
 the object

 That's the first part of the argument for platonism. (1)   The second
 part of the argument is the argument from indispensibility - you can't
 remove mathematical concepts from theories of reality because some
 concepts (like inifnite sets for example) can't be converted into
 physical notions. (2)  It's the combination of (1) and (2) that
 clinches it.


 
  This is a thoroughgoing contingentist position, and I don't see that it
  can be refuted except by rejecting contingentism and starting from
  idealism. But then you've begged what you're trying to prove.

 Aren't you guilty of the same thing?  You're simply assuming that
 materialism is the ultimate metaphysics and trying to reduce everything
 to that.  You do this because the human brain is only capable of
 representing *physical* things in conscious experience.

 But what is a *physical* thing really?  For instance is the *length* of
 the computer screen in front of you an objective value?  Someone moving
 close to light speed perpendicular to your computer screen would record
 a quite different value for the length of your computer screen than you
 would.  This suggests that the physical form is not objectively real.
 What *is* objectively out, is a 4-dimensional world-time for your
 computer screen as described by general relativity but this 4-d
 world-time is a *mathematical* concept.

 One could imagine an alien race or a super-intelligence which had no
 consciousness of physical things, but *sensed* everything purely in
 *mathematical* terms.  For instance imagine if they a way to *directly
 sense* 4-d world-lines.  Then it might be 'obvious' to alien
 philosophers that mathematical things were objevtively real.




 
'If according to the simplest explanation, an entity is complex and
   autonomous, then that entity is 

Re: Barbour's mistake: An alternative to a timless Platonia

2006-10-02 Thread David Nyman

[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 Now, how, you may ask, can these three things actually be
 'incomprehensible' when I've just defined them? ;)  I point out again
 that incomprehensible things could be referenced indirectly by their
 comprehensible effects.  And I maintain that's all of any definitions
 of these three things actually do.  After all: have you ever *seen*
 Energy, Volition and Information directly?  Never!  All definitions of
 these three things have only ever referenced them indirectly by
 their comprehensible effects!   So these three things *could* logically
 be incomprehensible things.

... and indeed, by these tokens, we ourselves. We stand, as it were,
with our feet in incomprehensibility: the noumenon presents a boundary
to what we can know of our ontology, in the form of the energy and
information that constitute our epistemology - what can be
comprehended.

On the subject of 'timelessness': must we not separate the notion of
the *experience* of time from the separate issue of the compresent
dimensional *existence* of 'times'? Our use of the same term for both
may be profoundly misleading. The question 'why do we experience time?'
is surely of the same order as 'why do we experience red?' You have
remarked that 'qualia' are mathematical/ ontological categories (i.e.
categories of the noumenon: a mathematical one, in your schema).
'Time-as-experienced' is by the same token surely a qualitative
meta-category - an experiential vector along which lies the successive
qualitative states of information structures representing
perceivers-and-their-perceptions.

Again, human comprehension may seem to be a barrier here - to a more
powerful understanding, our own level of temporal experience may lie
transparent. But we may still expect that such a comprehension must
take the form of *some* perceptual scheme of differentiation - and such
differentiation of a perceptual field by some perceiver is what perhaps
lies at the heart of any 'experience of time'.

You may still feel that there is an essential 'dynamism' to the
experience of time that is lacking in any 'block' view. To this I would
simply suggest that dynamism entails a 'duality' of perspective - a
'fixed' point from which 'change' can be discerned. Can it be that the
noumenon is the 'fixed point' for any observation? After all, we can
see that each 'observer' compresently partakes of the incomprehensible
and the comprehensible, the whole and the part, the global and the
local, the ontic and the epistemic. Given the organisation of 'qualia'
into temporal meta-structures - what Barbour calls time capsules - the
*experience* of time may simply be the *qualitative* precondition
whereby any information whatsoever becomes 'present' to some perceiver.

David

 Those who have read my past threads and seen the summary of my
 metaphysics analysis (Mathematico-Cognition Reality Theory-MCRT) know
 that I think that time is an irreducible property of reality and my
 analysis suggests that even Barbour's configuration space (Platonia,
 the Multiverse whatever you want to call it) isn't truly timeless.

 The trouble with a timeless multiverse lies in the notion of 'the space
 of all mathematical possibilities'.  Unfortunately the notion of 'all
 mathematical possibilities co-existing' is highly suspect, precisely
 because it's so ill-defined.  There are some things in math for which
 the quantifier 'existence' is suspect   infinite sets in
 particular.  If 'the space of all possibilities' is itself still
 evolving as I suggested, then Platonia would not be timeless as Barbour
 (and many here on this list) thinks.

 Another reason for suspecting that Platonia isn't truly timeless lies
 in the fact that Barbour's Platonia is an attempt to totally remove
 'boundary conditions' from science.
 Note that no attempts to remove boundary conditions from science have
 ever succeeded.  Why should Barbour's theory suddenly be the exception?
  There's a very good reason for defining boundary conditions... because
 without an 'inside and 'outside' to an entity, one simply cannot
 analyze it as a dynamical system.  That's why no attempt to remove
 boundary conditions from science has ever succeeded.

 Now when the 'system' under disussion is 'all of reality' it may seem
 tautological that 'there exists nothing outside reality because reality
 is everything that exists' but... well... this so called tautology
 is not neccesserily true!  The trouble lies in the definition of a
 'thing'.  If there are incomprehensible things, then it may actually
 make sense to talk about them existing 'outside reality'.  Standard
 philosophy only recognizes one quantifier for 'existence' but perhaps
 thre are several different notions.  Again, Barbour's attempt to
 'remove an outside to reality' also prevents us from analyzing reality
 as a dynamical system, because any system analysis requires us to
 define system boundaries and external actors.  Again, no attempts to
 remove 

Maudlin's argument

2006-10-02 Thread George Levy




Bruno Marchal wrote in explaining Maudlin's argument:

"For any given precise running computation associated to
some inner experience, you
can modify the device in such a way that the amount of physical
activity involved is
arbitrarily low, and even null for dreaming experience which has no
inputs and no outputs.
Now, having suppressed that physical activity present in the running
computation, the
machine will only be accidentally correct. It will be correct only for
that precise computation,
with unchanged environment. If it is changed a little bit, it will make
the machine running
computation no more relatively correct. But then, Maudlin
ingenuously showed that
counterfactual correctness can be recovered, by adding non active
devices which will be
triggered only if some (counterfactual) change would appear in the
environment. 
  

I believe the argument is erroneous. Maudlin's argument reminds me of
the fallacy in Maxwell's demon. 

To reduce the machine's complexity Maudlin must perform a modicum of
analysis, simulation etc.. to predict how the machine performs in
different situations. Using his newly acquired knowledge, he then
maximally reduces the machine's complexity for one particular task,
keeping the machine fully operational for all other tasks. In effect
Maudlin has surreptitiously inserted himself in the mechanism. so now,
we
don't have just the machine but we have the machine plus Maudlin. The
machine is not simpler or not existent. The machine is now Maudlin!

In conclusion, the following conclusion reached by Maudlin and Bruno is
fallacious.

"Now this shows that any inner experience can be associated
with an arbitrary low (even null) physical
activity, and this in keeping counterfactual correctness. And that is
absurd with the
conjunction of both comp and materialism."

Maudlin's argument cannot be used to state that "any inner experience
can be associated with an arbitrary low (even null) physical activity."
Thus it is not necessarily true that comp and materialism are
incompatible.

I think the paradox can be resolved by tracing how information flows
and Maudlin is certainly in the circuit, using information, just like
Maxwell's demon is affecting entropy.

George


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