Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread Samiya Illias
And the Book is placed, and thou seest the guilty fearful of that which is 
therein, and they say: What kind of a Book is this that leaveth not a small 
thing nor a great thing but hath counted it! And they find all that they did 
confronting them, and thy Lord wrongeth no-one 
[https://www.islamawakened.com/quran/18/49/default.htm] 


> On 10-Apr-2022, at 9:15 AM, Bruce Kellett  wrote:
> 
>> These IR photons have nothing whatsoever to do with observation.
> 
> But the have everything to do with the fact that the formation of records is 
> irreversible.

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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread Bruce Kellett
On Sun, Apr 10, 2022 at 2:13 PM smitra  wrote:

>
> So, what I'm saying is correct, the fact that physics is local is not
> under dispute in physics. There exists a local Hamiltonian that
> generates the time evolution operator. You'll win a Noble prize if you
> can demonstrate that this is not the case. So, the burden of proof is on
> you to show where what is supposed to be established physics, is wrong.
>

The simplest way to counter your assertions is to provide a simple
counterexample. Consider the standard Alice/Bob setup, with up/down results
coded as 1/0. According to MWI, on each trial, Alice splits, one copy
recoding |1> and the other copy recording |0>. After N trials, there are
2^N copies of Alice, with records consisting of all possible binary
sequences of length N. If Bob is spacelike separated and independent, he
also splits into 2^N copie, consisting of all possible binary sequences of
length N.

When Alice and Bob meet (or exchange trial results), each copy of each
splits into 2^N copies, one for each copy of the other party. So for Alice,
each copy of Aice with some binary sequence of results, splits into 2^N
copies, one for each of Bob's sequences. Now say, for example, that Alice
and Bob both happen to have the same polarizer setting for the 10th trial,
so that for trial 10, their polarizers are parallel. Since there are copies
of Alice for all possible results for trial 10, there is an Alice with
result |1> for this trial, and a different Alice with result |0>. Now each
Alice splits according to all possible copies of Bob. So the Alice with
result |1> meets a Bob with result |0> for the same trial. That is OK
according to quantum mechanics. But by the rules of MWI, there is also a
copy of Alice with result |1> who meets a Bob who recorded |1> for the 10th
trial. This contradicts QM, in fact it violates angular momentum
conservation, so no such Alice/Bob coupling is possible. But, by following
the rules of local MWI, such a pairing is inevitable. What is more, there
will be many more pairings that conflict with the predictions of QM than
there will be pairings that comply.

The challenge for the local account of the Bell correlations in MWI is:
What happens to all these incorrect couplings? There is clearly one correct
matching for each Alice copy. She is bound to meet this since she meets all
possible Bob sequences. But there are 2^N of these, and only one is
strictly correct (though, since correlations are probabilistic, there will
probably be some additional number of near misses). In general, this leaves
2^N-1 bad couplings for each copy of Alice --  (2^N)*(2^N -1) bad pairings
that have to be got rid of somehow. MWI offers no mechanism for removing
these bad pairings.

Bruce

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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread Bruce Kellett
On Sun, Apr 10, 2022 at 2:13 PM smitra  wrote:

> On 10-04-2022 05:58, Bruce Kellett wrote:
> > On Sun, Apr 10, 2022 at 10:14 AM smitra  wrote:
> >
> >> On 09-04-2022 06:43, Bruce Kellett wrote:
> >>
> >>> So, to end this interminable argument, just give this fabulous local
> >>> many worlds account of the Bell correlations. It is all very well to
> >>> claim that MWI is manifestly local, then step sideways and avoid
> >>> giving the required local account of the correlations. In a sense,
> >>> Bell's theorem becomes irrelevant if a local account of the
> >>> correlations can be provided. So provide it, and the argument is over.
> >>
> >> We start at t = 0 with everything ready to start creating the entangled
> >> pairs of spins. Alice and Bob will make their way tki distant locations
> >> and perform measurements on their spins, then return to meet each other
> >> and compute the correlations using the data in their logbooks. The final
> >> results will be published at time T. The local account that describes
> >> the entire process is formally given by:
> >>
> >> |final state> = exp[-i H t/hbar]|initial state>
> >>
> >> where H is the local Standard Model Hamiltonian.
> >
> > Ha, Ha. Ha fucking Ha! What a comedian!
> >
> > Teacher says: "Show your working." 0/10
> >
>
> If the teacher gives zero points for the exercise then that can implies
> that the problem the student was supposed to solve was solvable.
>

You really are naive!

So, what I'm saying is correct, the fact that physics is local is not
> under dispute in physics.


Of course it is under dispute. Many people now agree that entanglement is
essentially non-local. And if you consider holography, then that is the
ultimate non-local physics.


There exists a local Hamiltonian that
> generates the time evolution operator. You'll win a Noble prize if you
> can demonstrate that this is not the case. So, the burden of proof is on
> you to show where what is supposed to be established physics, is wrong.
>

If you consider only local interactions, you have a local Hamiltonian. But
the state we are considering here is not local, so your precious local
dynamics are not going to be sufficient. Prove that there is a local state
that is non-separable, then I might listen. Entangled states are
non-separable, hence non-local.

You still haven't given the working for your fabulous demonstration
above...

Bruce

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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread Bruce Kellett
On Sun, Apr 10, 2022 at 10:25 AM smitra  wrote:

> On 09-04-2022 07:03, Bruce Kellett wrote:
> > On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 11:28 AM smitra  wrote:
> >
> >> On 08-04-2022 07:19, Bruce Kellett wrote:
> >>>
> >>> Permanent records do follow from entanglement and decoherence. There
> >>> is no reason to suppose that algorithms processing information are
> >>> going to produce permanent records. Unless they do, they are useless
> >>> as a model of observation. In the words of David Albert (paraphrased):
> >>> "The task of fundamental physics is to explain the manifest image
> >> ."
> >>>
> >>
> >> Decoherence is never complete it can in principle be reversed.
> >
> > No. Measurements are in principle irreversible. Whenever you have a
> > result entangled with the environment (by decoherence) you inevitably
> > have low energy IR photons that escape into space. Since these vanish
> > at the speed of light, they cannot be reversed. The records of results
> > are permanent, not just FAPP, but in principle, according to the laws
> > of physics.
>
> These IR photons have nothing whatsoever to do with observation.


But the have everything to do with the fact that the formation of records
is irreversible.

And
> it's FAPP, not in principle, anyway.


In principle means that the laws of physics forbid any violation.

If I observe something then that's
> due to my brain processing information, so, it's the processing of
> information by a particular algorithm that's the key thing here, not
> that decoherence happens and that IR photons would make this
> irreversible.
>

Your brain can only process external records of the result. The making of
these records is irreversible because the laws of physics do not allow you
to reverse them.


That this is FAPP and not in principle, follows from the fact that IR
> photons can be reflected back.


You are ignoring some important laws of physics here. Even if one could put
an appropriate reflecting mirror in the path of the photons so that they
are reflected back, that mirror would impart a change of momentum, so would
be slightly heated, and would emit its own IR photons in response. No
escaping those pesky IR photons.



> So, one can consider a closed system
> within which an observer exists. If we impose reflecting boundary
> conditions at some distance, then the number of modes of the
> electromagnetic field below a certain energy E is finite.


There is no such reflecting boundary. And no such boundary is relevant to
the measurement. It would still not make the process reversible. The
emission of the IR photons is a probabilistic process, so merely reflecting
them back does not ensure that they will be exactly reabsorbed -- that is a
process of zero probability measure.


And the amount
> of information carried by photons with wavelength much larger than the
> size of the experimental system is small, as for those photons that are
> emitted, there are only a small number of distinct photon states.
>

Not relevant, since there is no enclosing reflecting boundary.

Bruce

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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread smitra

On 10-04-2022 05:58, Bruce Kellett wrote:

On Sun, Apr 10, 2022 at 10:14 AM smitra  wrote:


On 09-04-2022 06:43, Bruce Kellett wrote:


So, to end this interminable argument, just give this fabulous

local

many worlds account of the Bell correlations. It is all very well

to

claim that MWI is manifestly local, then step sideways and avoid
giving the required local account of the correlations. In a sense,
Bell's theorem becomes irrelevant if a local account of the
correlations can be provided. So provide it, and the argument is

over.

We start at t = 0 with everything ready to start creating the
entangled
pairs of spins. Alice and Bob will make their way tki distant
locations
and perform measurements on their spins, then return to meet each
other
and compute the correlations using the data in their logbooks. The
final
results will be published at time T. The local account that
describes
the entire process is formally given by:

|final state> = exp[-i H t/hbar]|initial state>

where H is the local Standard Model Hamiltonian.


Ha, Ha. Ha fucking Ha! What a comedian!

Teacher says: "Show your working." 0/10



If the teacher gives zero points for the exercise then that can implies 
that the problem the student was supposed to solve was solvable.


So, what I'm saying is correct, the fact that physics is local is not 
under dispute in physics. There exists a local Hamiltonian that 
generates the time evolution operator. You'll win a Noble prize if you 
can demonstrate that this is not the case. So, the burden of proof is on 
you to show where what is supposed to be established physics, is wrong.




Bruce

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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread Bruce Kellett
On Sun, Apr 10, 2022 at 10:15 AM smitra  wrote:

> On 09-04-2022 06:56, Bruce Kellett wrote:
> > On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 11:02 AM smitra  wrote:
> >
> >> This assumption is not valid in QM. In deterministic theories the
> >> assumption is valid if the theory is local. But by conforming the QM
> >> result one does not prove non-locality. One only proves that a
> >> deterministic theory underlying QM must be nonlocal.
> >
> > I understood that MWI was deterministic. Then, by your reasoning, it
> > must be non-local.
> >
>
> Determinism is invoked in the derivation of Bell inequalities in the
> sense of de experimental outcomes being predetermined. That's not the
> case in the MWI because there is not a single outcome.
>

Bell does not assume or invoke determinism in the proof of his theorem.
Determinism is possibly a property of a hidden variable theory, but Bell
does not assume a hidden variable theory.

You will have to start providing textual evidence from the writing of Jon
Bell himself for some of the more outrageous claims that you are making.

Besides, MWI is the epitome of a deterministic theory!

Bruce

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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread Bruce Kellett
On Sun, Apr 10, 2022 at 10:14 AM smitra  wrote:

> On 09-04-2022 06:43, Bruce Kellett wrote:
>
> > So, to end this interminable argument, just give this fabulous local
> > many worlds account of the Bell correlations. It is all very well to
> > claim that MWI is manifestly local, then step sideways and avoid
> > giving the required local account of the correlations. In a sense,
> > Bell's theorem becomes irrelevant if a local account of the
> > correlations can be provided. So provide it, and the argument is over.
>
>
> We start at t = 0 with everything ready to start creating the entangled
> pairs of spins. Alice and Bob will make their way tki distant locations
> and perform measurements on their spins, then return to meet each other
> and compute the correlations using the data in their logbooks. The final
> results will be published at time T. The local account that describes
> the entire process is formally given by:
>
> |final state> = exp[-i H t/hbar]|initial state>
>
> where H is the local Standard Model Hamiltonian.
>


Ha, Ha. Ha fucking Ha! What a comedian!

Teacher says: "Show your working." 0/10

Bruce

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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread smitra

On 10-04-2022 03:43, Brent Meeker wrote:

On 4/9/2022 6:21 PM, smitra wrote:

On 10-04-2022 02:49, Brent Meeker wrote:

On 4/9/2022 5:41 PM, smitra wrote:

On 09-04-2022 07:39, Brent Meeker wrote:

On 4/8/2022 9:27 PM, smitra wrote:

On 09-04-2022 06:04, Brent Meeker wrote:

On 4/8/2022 8:24 PM, smitra wrote:

On 09-04-2022 04:41, Bruce Kellett wrote:
On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 12:25 PM smitra  
wrote:



On 09-04-2022 01:07, Bruce Kellett wrote:


The trouble here is that his argument about Bell's theorem 
uses

his

own peculiar derivation. Derivations invoking counterfactual

reasoning
abound, but Bell did not prove his theorem in this way. If 
the

theorem

can be proved without using counterfactual reasoning, then
counterfactual reasoning is not essential to the proof.

Tim Maudlin has an interesting take on this; see 
arxiv:1408.1826.
Maudlin points out that Bell did not assume either 
Determinism or
counterfactual definiteness in his proof. He derived 
determinism

by
pointing out that if the theory is EPR local, then the 
reactions

of
the measuring devices must be predetermined by some element 
of

reality
in the system. This is a derivation of determinism for a 
local

theory,

which simultaneously derives the condition sometimes called
'counterfactual definiteness'. But Bell does not assume an 
EPR

local

theory -- he shows that such a theory contradicts quantum

mechanics..
Counterfactual reasoning, or counterfactual definiteness, 
have no

place in his argument.



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bell%27s_theorem

"Its derivation here depends upon two assumptions: first, that 
the
underlying physical properties PQ, PR, PS, PT exist 
independently of


being observed or measured (sometimes called the assumption of
realism);
and second, that Alice's choice of action cannot influence 
Bob's

result
or vice versa (often called the assumption of locality)"

This allows for the counterfactual reasoning Bell uses in the
derivation.


Wikipedia is not always a reliable source.



In this case it is, you can verify the algebra just above the 
quote and see that you have to use counterfactual reasoning 
which is then made possible if you assume realism and locality



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bell%27s_theorem#Many-worlds_interpretation_of_quantum_mechanics


"The Many-Worlds interpretation, also known as the Everett
interpretation, is local and deterministic, as it consists of 
the
unitary part of quantum mechanics without collapse. It can 
generate

correlations that violate a Bell inequality because it doesn't
satisfy
the implicit assumption that Bell made that measurements have 
a

single
outcome. In fact, Bell's theorem can be proven in the 
Many-Worlds

framework from the assumption that a measurement has a single
outcome.
Therefore a violation of a Bell inequality can be interpreted 
as a

demonstration that measurements have multiple outcomes."


What a remarkably silly argument. The writer here is claiming 
that
since Bell's theorem doesn't apply to many worlds, many worlds 
can
give a local account of the correlations. It is amazing that so 
many
people claim this, but no one has ever given this remarkable 
local
account of the Bell correlations; in many worlds, or in any 
other

theory.



No, it says that MWI is local because of unitary time evolution 
(which is then assumed to be generated by a local Hamiltonian) 
So, MWI is local by definition once we use the correct 
Hamiltonian defined by the known laws of physics.


The correct Hamiltonian must depend on the polarizer setting at 
Alice

and at Bob, so how can it be local?



The Standard Model of particle physics is manifestly local. The 
polarizer consists of atoms, ultimately everything is always 
described by local dynamics. You may choose to replace the true 
Hamiltonian by an effective Hamiltonian and that may sometimes 
describe part of the system as if it were due to nonlocal 
dynamics. That's then a consequence of part of the local dynamics 
no longer generated by the true Hamiltonian but rather the results 
of that being effectively put into the dynamics.


The local dynamics at Alice are dependent of the A polarizer 
setting
which set by a photon from NGC2516 and the local dynamics at Bob 
are

dependent on a photon from M81.  So are you saying I have to use a
Hamiltonian that includes those sources?



Whatever is used in the experiment must be included. The finals 
state is the time evolution operator applied to the initial state, 
so you need to specify that initial state.


Then that's in direct contradiction to your assertion that the
Hamiltonian is local...unless you invoke superdeterminism to link
NGC125 and M81 to a common cause.

The photons from those galaxies are presumably not in some entangled 
state. what matters is that there exists a local Hamiltonian H and 
that the time evolution operator is U(t) = Exp[-i H t/hbar] and that 
the state of a system evolves according to |psi(t)> = U(t)|psi(0)>.


But there 

Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread Brent Meeker




On 4/9/2022 6:21 PM, smitra wrote:

On 10-04-2022 02:49, Brent Meeker wrote:

On 4/9/2022 5:41 PM, smitra wrote:

On 09-04-2022 07:39, Brent Meeker wrote:

On 4/8/2022 9:27 PM, smitra wrote:

On 09-04-2022 06:04, Brent Meeker wrote:

On 4/8/2022 8:24 PM, smitra wrote:

On 09-04-2022 04:41, Bruce Kellett wrote:

On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 12:25 PM smitra  wrote:


On 09-04-2022 01:07, Bruce Kellett wrote:


The trouble here is that his argument about Bell's theorem uses

his

own peculiar derivation. Derivations invoking counterfactual

reasoning

abound, but Bell did not prove his theorem in this way. If the

theorem

can be proved without using counterfactual reasoning, then
counterfactual reasoning is not essential to the proof.

Tim Maudlin has an interesting take on this; see 
arxiv:1408.1826.
Maudlin points out that Bell did not assume either 
Determinism or

counterfactual definiteness in his proof. He derived determinism

by

pointing out that if the theory is EPR local, then the reactions

of

the measuring devices must be predetermined by some element of

reality

in the system. This is a derivation of determinism for a local

theory,

which simultaneously derives the condition sometimes called
'counterfactual definiteness'. But Bell does not assume an EPR

local

theory -- he shows that such a theory contradicts quantum

mechanics..
Counterfactual reasoning, or counterfactual definiteness, 
have no

place in his argument.



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bell%27s_theorem

"Its derivation here depends upon two assumptions: first, that 
the
underlying physical properties PQ, PR, PS, PT exist 
independently of


being observed or measured (sometimes called the assumption of
realism);
and second, that Alice's choice of action cannot influence Bob's
result
or vice versa (often called the assumption of locality)"

This allows for the counterfactual reasoning Bell uses in the
derivation.


Wikipedia is not always a reliable source.



In this case it is, you can verify the algebra just above the 
quote and see that you have to use counterfactual reasoning 
which is then made possible if you assume realism and locality


https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bell%27s_theorem#Many-worlds_interpretation_of_quantum_mechanics 



"The Many-Worlds interpretation, also known as the Everett
interpretation, is local and deterministic, as it consists of the
unitary part of quantum mechanics without collapse. It can 
generate

correlations that violate a Bell inequality because it doesn't
satisfy
the implicit assumption that Bell made that measurements have a
single
outcome. In fact, Bell's theorem can be proven in the Many-Worlds
framework from the assumption that a measurement has a single
outcome.
Therefore a violation of a Bell inequality can be interpreted 
as a

demonstration that measurements have multiple outcomes."


What a remarkably silly argument. The writer here is claiming that
since Bell's theorem doesn't apply to many worlds, many worlds can
give a local account of the correlations. It is amazing that so 
many

people claim this, but no one has ever given this remarkable local
account of the Bell correlations; in many worlds, or in any other
theory.



No, it says that MWI is local because of unitary time evolution 
(which is then assumed to be generated by a local Hamiltonian) 
So, MWI is local by definition once we use the correct 
Hamiltonian defined by the known laws of physics.


The correct Hamiltonian must depend on the polarizer setting at 
Alice

and at Bob, so how can it be local?



The Standard Model of particle physics is manifestly local. The 
polarizer consists of atoms, ultimately everything is always 
described by local dynamics. You may choose to replace the true 
Hamiltonian by an effective Hamiltonian and that may sometimes 
describe part of the system as if it were due to nonlocal 
dynamics. That's then a consequence of part of the local dynamics 
no longer generated by the true Hamiltonian but rather the results 
of that being effectively put into the dynamics.


The local dynamics at Alice are dependent of the A polarizer setting
which set by a photon from NGC2516 and the local dynamics at Bob are
dependent on a photon from M81.  So are you saying I have to use a
Hamiltonian that includes those sources?



Whatever is used in the experiment must be included. The finals 
state is the time evolution operator applied to the initial state, 
so you need to specify that initial state.


Then that's in direct contradiction to your assertion that the
Hamiltonian is local...unless you invoke superdeterminism to link
NGC125 and M81 to a common cause.

The photons from those galaxies are presumably not in some entangled 
state. what matters is that there exists a local Hamiltonian H and 
that the time evolution operator is U(t) = Exp[-i H t/hbar] and that 
the state of a system evolves according to |psi(t)> = U(t)|psi(0)>.


But there doesn't exist such a H.  H depends on the polarizer 

Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread smitra

On 10-04-2022 02:49, Brent Meeker wrote:

On 4/9/2022 5:41 PM, smitra wrote:

On 09-04-2022 07:39, Brent Meeker wrote:

On 4/8/2022 9:27 PM, smitra wrote:

On 09-04-2022 06:04, Brent Meeker wrote:

On 4/8/2022 8:24 PM, smitra wrote:

On 09-04-2022 04:41, Bruce Kellett wrote:

On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 12:25 PM smitra  wrote:


On 09-04-2022 01:07, Bruce Kellett wrote:


The trouble here is that his argument about Bell's theorem uses

his

own peculiar derivation. Derivations invoking counterfactual

reasoning

abound, but Bell did not prove his theorem in this way. If the

theorem

can be proved without using counterfactual reasoning, then
counterfactual reasoning is not essential to the proof.

Tim Maudlin has an interesting take on this; see 
arxiv:1408.1826.
Maudlin points out that Bell did not assume either Determinism 
or
counterfactual definiteness in his proof. He derived 
determinism

by
pointing out that if the theory is EPR local, then the 
reactions

of

the measuring devices must be predetermined by some element of

reality

in the system. This is a derivation of determinism for a local

theory,

which simultaneously derives the condition sometimes called
'counterfactual definiteness'. But Bell does not assume an EPR

local

theory -- he shows that such a theory contradicts quantum

mechanics..
Counterfactual reasoning, or counterfactual definiteness, have 
no

place in his argument.



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bell%27s_theorem

"Its derivation here depends upon two assumptions: first, that 
the
underlying physical properties PQ, PR, PS, PT exist 
independently of


being observed or measured (sometimes called the assumption of
realism);
and second, that Alice's choice of action cannot influence Bob's
result
or vice versa (often called the assumption of locality)"

This allows for the counterfactual reasoning Bell uses in the
derivation.


Wikipedia is not always a reliable source.



In this case it is, you can verify the algebra just above the 
quote and see that you have to use counterfactual reasoning which 
is then made possible if you assume realism and locality



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bell%27s_theorem#Many-worlds_interpretation_of_quantum_mechanics


"The Many-Worlds interpretation, also known as the Everett
interpretation, is local and deterministic, as it consists of 
the
unitary part of quantum mechanics without collapse. It can 
generate

correlations that violate a Bell inequality because it doesn't
satisfy
the implicit assumption that Bell made that measurements have a
single
outcome. In fact, Bell's theorem can be proven in the 
Many-Worlds

framework from the assumption that a measurement has a single
outcome.
Therefore a violation of a Bell inequality can be interpreted as 
a

demonstration that measurements have multiple outcomes."


What a remarkably silly argument. The writer here is claiming 
that
since Bell's theorem doesn't apply to many worlds, many worlds 
can
give a local account of the correlations. It is amazing that so 
many
people claim this, but no one has ever given this remarkable 
local

account of the Bell correlations; in many worlds, or in any other
theory.



No, it says that MWI is local because of unitary time evolution 
(which is then assumed to be generated by a local Hamiltonian) So, 
MWI is local by definition once we use the correct Hamiltonian 
defined by the known laws of physics.


The correct Hamiltonian must depend on the polarizer setting at 
Alice

and at Bob, so how can it be local?



The Standard Model of particle physics is manifestly local. The 
polarizer consists of atoms, ultimately everything is always 
described by local dynamics. You may choose to replace the true 
Hamiltonian by an effective Hamiltonian and that may sometimes 
describe part of the system as if it were due to nonlocal dynamics. 
That's then a consequence of part of the local dynamics no longer 
generated by the true Hamiltonian but rather the results of that 
being effectively put into the dynamics.


The local dynamics at Alice are dependent of the A polarizer setting
which set by a photon from NGC2516 and the local dynamics at Bob are
dependent on a photon from M81.  So are you saying I have to use a
Hamiltonian that includes those sources?



Whatever is used in the experiment must be included. The finals state 
is the time evolution operator applied to the initial state, so you 
need to specify that initial state.


Then that's in direct contradiction to your assertion that the
Hamiltonian is local...unless you invoke superdeterminism to link
NGC125 and M81 to a common cause.

The photons from those galaxies are presumably not in some entangled 
state. what matters is that there exists a local Hamiltonian H and that 
the time evolution operator is U(t) = Exp[-i H t/hbar] and that the 
state of a system evolves according to |psi(t)> = U(t)|psi(0)>.


You can then start with |psi(0)> containing no entangled particles at 
all, and |psi(t)> describing the 

Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread smitra

On 10-04-2022 02:46, Brent Meeker wrote:

On 4/9/2022 5:25 PM, smitra wrote:

On 09-04-2022 07:03, Bruce Kellett wrote:

On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 11:28 AM smitra  wrote:


On 08-04-2022 07:19, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Permanent records do follow from entanglement and decoherence.

There

is no reason to suppose that algorithms processing information are
going to produce permanent records. Unless they do, they are

useless

as a model of observation. In the words of David Albert

(paraphrased):

"The task of fundamental physics is to explain the manifest image

."




Decoherence is never complete it can in principle be reversed.


No. Measurements are in principle irreversible. Whenever you have a
result entangled with the environment (by decoherence) you inevitably
have low energy IR photons that escape into space. Since these vanish
at the speed of light, they cannot be reversed. The records of 
results

are permanent, not just FAPP, but in principle, according to the laws
of physics.



These IR photons have nothing whatsoever to do with observation. And 
it's FAPP, not in principle, anyway. If I observe something then 
that's due to my brain processing information, so, it's the processing 
of information by a particular algorithm that's the key thing here, 
not that decoherence happens and that IR photons would make this 
irreversible.


So decoherence can be reversed, but your brain can't because it runs
an irreversible algorithm?  On what hardware doesn't it run this
irreversible algorithm?



Everything is in principle reversible. What matters is that our ability 
to experience something is not conditional on whether or not the state 
of the universe will get reversed to the initial state. It only depends 
on what happens in my brain here and now not whether the universe will 
collapse 100 billion years later in a unitary way so as to exactly 
revert to the initial state.


Saibal


Brent



That this is FAPP and not in principle, follows from the fact that IR 
photons can be reflected back. So, one can consider a closed system 
within which an observer exists. If we impose reflecting boundary 
conditions at some distance, then the number of modes of the 
electromagnetic field below a certain energy E is finite. And the 
amount of information carried by photons with wavelength much larger 
than the size of the experimental system is small, as for those 
photons that are emitted, there are only a small number of distinct 
photon states.




It cannot
reasonably be the case that I can only observe something right now
because a record of the observation is going to exist for eternity.
If
the universe were to reverse its time evolution in 10^15000 years in
a
unitary way, causing all records to be exactly erased, then we could
not
make any observations. What's the physical basis for making this
assumption?


What's the physical basis for assuming the universe can or could
reverse at some point in the future?



That's not a relevant issue here. It's simply that you are linking 
observations to physical processes that have nothing to do with what's 
relevant for observations, which would link it to things like the far 
future of the universe.



You may argue that a FAPP permanent record is good enough for
observation, but you cannot define a physical plausible rigorous
boundary of your FAPP criterion.


I can and have. The irreversibility occasioned by the escape of IR
photons is a rigorous boundary.


The escape of IR photons has nothing whatsoever to do with the ability 
of the brain to process information.





One can always subtract 1 second from
your time limit the universe must keep on expanding before starting
to
evolve backward. One then eventually ends up with the criterion that

there must be enough time for the brain processes that cause the
conscious experience of the observation to be completed.


Irrelevant speculation.



The irrelevant thing here (IR photons) was introduced by you.

Saibal


Bruce

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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread smitra

On 10-04-2022 02:43, Brent Meeker wrote:

On 4/9/2022 5:15 PM, smitra wrote:

On 09-04-2022 06:56, Bruce Kellett wrote:

On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 11:02 AM smitra  wrote:


This assumption is not valid in QM. In deterministic theories the
assumption is valid if the theory is local. But by conforming the QM

result one does not prove non-locality. One only proves that a
deterministic theory underlying QM must be nonlocal.


I understood that MWI was deterministic. Then, by your reasoning, it
must be non-local.



Determinism is invoked in the derivation of Bell inequalities in the 
sense of de experimental outcomes being predetermined.


No, the outcomes are random sequences of 0s and 1s.  How they
"predetermined" and predeterimined before what?



In local deterministic models, they are predetermined by the hidden 
variables and the polarizer settings.


Saibal


Brent


That's not the case in the MWI because there is not a single outcome.

Saibal


Bruce

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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread Brent Meeker




On 4/9/2022 5:41 PM, smitra wrote:

On 09-04-2022 07:39, Brent Meeker wrote:

On 4/8/2022 9:27 PM, smitra wrote:

On 09-04-2022 06:04, Brent Meeker wrote:

On 4/8/2022 8:24 PM, smitra wrote:

On 09-04-2022 04:41, Bruce Kellett wrote:

On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 12:25 PM smitra  wrote:


On 09-04-2022 01:07, Bruce Kellett wrote:


The trouble here is that his argument about Bell's theorem uses

his

own peculiar derivation. Derivations invoking counterfactual

reasoning

abound, but Bell did not prove his theorem in this way. If the

theorem

can be proved without using counterfactual reasoning, then
counterfactual reasoning is not essential to the proof.

Tim Maudlin has an interesting take on this; see arxiv:1408.1826.
Maudlin points out that Bell did not assume either Determinism or
counterfactual definiteness in his proof. He derived determinism

by

pointing out that if the theory is EPR local, then the reactions

of

the measuring devices must be predetermined by some element of

reality

in the system. This is a derivation of determinism for a local

theory,

which simultaneously derives the condition sometimes called
'counterfactual definiteness'. But Bell does not assume an EPR

local

theory -- he shows that such a theory contradicts quantum

mechanics..

Counterfactual reasoning, or counterfactual definiteness, have no
place in his argument.



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bell%27s_theorem

"Its derivation here depends upon two assumptions: first, that the
underlying physical properties PQ, PR, PS, PT exist 
independently of


being observed or measured (sometimes called the assumption of
realism);
and second, that Alice's choice of action cannot influence Bob's
result
or vice versa (often called the assumption of locality)"

This allows for the counterfactual reasoning Bell uses in the
derivation.


Wikipedia is not always a reliable source.



In this case it is, you can verify the algebra just above the 
quote and see that you have to use counterfactual reasoning which 
is then made possible if you assume realism and locality


https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bell%27s_theorem#Many-worlds_interpretation_of_quantum_mechanics 



"The Many-Worlds interpretation, also known as the Everett
interpretation, is local and deterministic, as it consists of the
unitary part of quantum mechanics without collapse. It can generate
correlations that violate a Bell inequality because it doesn't
satisfy
the implicit assumption that Bell made that measurements have a
single
outcome. In fact, Bell's theorem can be proven in the Many-Worlds
framework from the assumption that a measurement has a single
outcome.
Therefore a violation of a Bell inequality can be interpreted as a
demonstration that measurements have multiple outcomes."


What a remarkably silly argument. The writer here is claiming that
since Bell's theorem doesn't apply to many worlds, many worlds can
give a local account of the correlations. It is amazing that so many
people claim this, but no one has ever given this remarkable local
account of the Bell correlations; in many worlds, or in any other
theory.



No, it says that MWI is local because of unitary time evolution 
(which is then assumed to be generated by a local Hamiltonian) So, 
MWI is local by definition once we use the correct Hamiltonian 
defined by the known laws of physics.


The correct Hamiltonian must depend on the polarizer setting at Alice
and at Bob, so how can it be local?



The Standard Model of particle physics is manifestly local. The 
polarizer consists of atoms, ultimately everything is always 
described by local dynamics. You may choose to replace the true 
Hamiltonian by an effective Hamiltonian and that may sometimes 
describe part of the system as if it were due to nonlocal dynamics. 
That's then a consequence of part of the local dynamics no longer 
generated by the true Hamiltonian but rather the results of that 
being effectively put into the dynamics.


The local dynamics at Alice are dependent of the A polarizer setting
which set by a photon from NGC2516 and the local dynamics at Bob are
dependent on a photon from M81.  So are you saying I have to use a
Hamiltonian that includes those sources?



Whatever is used in the experiment must be included. The finals state 
is the time evolution operator applied to the initial state, so you 
need to specify that initial state.


Then that's in direct contradiction to your assertion that the 
Hamiltonian is local...unless you invoke superdeterminism to link NGC125 
and M81 to a common cause.


Brent



Saibal



Brent



Another example of this is the Aharonov-Bohm effect:

https://arxiv.org/abs/1906.03440

So, the apparent non-locality here is an artifact of describing the 
electromagnetic fields of the solenoid classically.


Saibal


Brent

Then given that MWI is local and deterministic and yet it violates 
Bell's inequalities (because it reproduces QM predictions 
correctly), it follows that the MWI must violate an 

Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread Brent Meeker




On 4/9/2022 5:25 PM, smitra wrote:

On 09-04-2022 07:03, Bruce Kellett wrote:

On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 11:28 AM smitra  wrote:


On 08-04-2022 07:19, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Permanent records do follow from entanglement and decoherence.

There

is no reason to suppose that algorithms processing information are
going to produce permanent records. Unless they do, they are

useless

as a model of observation. In the words of David Albert

(paraphrased):

"The task of fundamental physics is to explain the manifest image

."




Decoherence is never complete it can in principle be reversed.


No. Measurements are in principle irreversible. Whenever you have a
result entangled with the environment (by decoherence) you inevitably
have low energy IR photons that escape into space. Since these vanish
at the speed of light, they cannot be reversed. The records of results
are permanent, not just FAPP, but in principle, according to the laws
of physics.



These IR photons have nothing whatsoever to do with observation. And 
it's FAPP, not in principle, anyway. If I observe something then 
that's due to my brain processing information, so, it's the processing 
of information by a particular algorithm that's the key thing here, 
not that decoherence happens and that IR photons would make this 
irreversible.


So decoherence can be reversed, but your brain can't because it runs an 
irreversible algorithm?  On what hardware doesn't it run this 
irreversible algorithm?


Brent



That this is FAPP and not in principle, follows from the fact that IR 
photons can be reflected back. So, one can consider a closed system 
within which an observer exists. If we impose reflecting boundary 
conditions at some distance, then the number of modes of the 
electromagnetic field below a certain energy E is finite. And the 
amount of information carried by photons with wavelength much larger 
than the size of the experimental system is small, as for those 
photons that are emitted, there are only a small number of distinct 
photon states.




It cannot
reasonably be the case that I can only observe something right now
because a record of the observation is going to exist for eternity.
If
the universe were to reverse its time evolution in 10^15000 years in
a
unitary way, causing all records to be exactly erased, then we could
not
make any observations. What's the physical basis for making this
assumption?


What's the physical basis for assuming the universe can or could
reverse at some point in the future?



That's not a relevant issue here. It's simply that you are linking 
observations to physical processes that have nothing to do with what's 
relevant for observations, which would link it to things like the far 
future of the universe.



You may argue that a FAPP permanent record is good enough for
observation, but you cannot define a physical plausible rigorous
boundary of your FAPP criterion.


I can and have. The irreversibility occasioned by the escape of IR
photons is a rigorous boundary.


The escape of IR photons has nothing whatsoever to do with the ability 
of the brain to process information.





One can always subtract 1 second from
your time limit the universe must keep on expanding before starting
to
evolve backward. One then eventually ends up with the criterion that

there must be enough time for the brain processes that cause the
conscious experience of the observation to be completed.


Irrelevant speculation.



The irrelevant thing here (IR photons) was introduced by you.

Saibal


Bruce

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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread Brent Meeker




On 4/9/2022 5:15 PM, smitra wrote:

On 09-04-2022 06:56, Bruce Kellett wrote:

On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 11:02 AM smitra  wrote:


This assumption is not valid in QM. In deterministic theories the
assumption is valid if the theory is local. But by conforming the QM

result one does not prove non-locality. One only proves that a
deterministic theory underlying QM must be nonlocal.


I understood that MWI was deterministic. Then, by your reasoning, it
must be non-local.



Determinism is invoked in the derivation of Bell inequalities in the 
sense of de experimental outcomes being predetermined. 


No, the outcomes are random sequences of 0s and 1s.  How they 
"predetermined" and predeterimined before what?


Brent


That's not the case in the MWI because there is not a single outcome.

Saibal


Bruce

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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread smitra

On 09-04-2022 07:39, Brent Meeker wrote:

On 4/8/2022 9:27 PM, smitra wrote:

On 09-04-2022 06:04, Brent Meeker wrote:

On 4/8/2022 8:24 PM, smitra wrote:

On 09-04-2022 04:41, Bruce Kellett wrote:

On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 12:25 PM smitra  wrote:


On 09-04-2022 01:07, Bruce Kellett wrote:


The trouble here is that his argument about Bell's theorem uses

his

own peculiar derivation. Derivations invoking counterfactual

reasoning

abound, but Bell did not prove his theorem in this way. If the

theorem

can be proved without using counterfactual reasoning, then
counterfactual reasoning is not essential to the proof.

Tim Maudlin has an interesting take on this; see arxiv:1408.1826.
Maudlin points out that Bell did not assume either Determinism or
counterfactual definiteness in his proof. He derived determinism

by

pointing out that if the theory is EPR local, then the reactions

of

the measuring devices must be predetermined by some element of

reality

in the system. This is a derivation of determinism for a local

theory,

which simultaneously derives the condition sometimes called
'counterfactual definiteness'. But Bell does not assume an EPR

local

theory -- he shows that such a theory contradicts quantum

mechanics..

Counterfactual reasoning, or counterfactual definiteness, have no
place in his argument.



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bell%27s_theorem

"Its derivation here depends upon two assumptions: first, that the
underlying physical properties PQ, PR, PS, PT exist independently 
of


being observed or measured (sometimes called the assumption of
realism);
and second, that Alice's choice of action cannot influence Bob's
result
or vice versa (often called the assumption of locality)"

This allows for the counterfactual reasoning Bell uses in the
derivation.


Wikipedia is not always a reliable source.



In this case it is, you can verify the algebra just above the quote 
and see that you have to use counterfactual reasoning which is then 
made possible if you assume realism and locality



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bell%27s_theorem#Many-worlds_interpretation_of_quantum_mechanics


"The Many-Worlds interpretation, also known as the Everett
interpretation, is local and deterministic, as it consists of the
unitary part of quantum mechanics without collapse. It can 
generate

correlations that violate a Bell inequality because it doesn't
satisfy
the implicit assumption that Bell made that measurements have a
single
outcome. In fact, Bell's theorem can be proven in the Many-Worlds
framework from the assumption that a measurement has a single
outcome.
Therefore a violation of a Bell inequality can be interpreted as a
demonstration that measurements have multiple outcomes."


What a remarkably silly argument. The writer here is claiming that
since Bell's theorem doesn't apply to many worlds, many worlds can
give a local account of the correlations. It is amazing that so 
many

people claim this, but no one has ever given this remarkable local
account of the Bell correlations; in many worlds, or in any other
theory.



No, it says that MWI is local because of unitary time evolution 
(which is then assumed to be generated by a local Hamiltonian) So, 
MWI is local by definition once we use the correct Hamiltonian 
defined by the known laws of physics.


The correct Hamiltonian must depend on the polarizer setting at Alice
and at Bob, so how can it be local?



The Standard Model of particle physics is manifestly local. The 
polarizer consists of atoms, ultimately everything is always described 
by local dynamics. You may choose to replace the true Hamiltonian by 
an effective Hamiltonian and that may sometimes describe part of the 
system as if it were due to nonlocal dynamics. That's then a 
consequence of part of the local dynamics no longer generated by the 
true Hamiltonian but rather the results of that being effectively put 
into the dynamics.


The local dynamics at Alice are dependent of the A polarizer setting
which set by a photon from NGC2516 and the local dynamics at Bob are
dependent on a photon from M81.  So are you saying I have to use a
Hamiltonian that includes those sources?



Whatever is used in the experiment must be included. The finals state is 
the time evolution operator applied to the initial state, so you need to 
specify that initial state.


Saibal



Brent



Another example of this is the Aharonov-Bohm effect:

https://arxiv.org/abs/1906.03440

So, the apparent non-locality here is an artifact of describing the 
electromagnetic fields of the solenoid classically.


Saibal


Brent

Then given that MWI is local and deterministic and yet it violates 
Bell's inequalities (because it reproduces QM predictions 
correctly), it follows that the MWI must violate an assumption Bell 
made. And that is then that measurements have single outcomes. This 
is violated in the MWI. You can also say that this makes MWI violate 
realism as John Clark has pointed out often on this list.

Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread smitra

On 09-04-2022 07:10, Bruce Kellett wrote:

On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 11:35 AM smitra  wrote:


On 08-04-2022 07:28, Bruce Kellett wrote:

On Fri, Apr 8, 2022 at 1:42 PM smitra  wrote:



Locality implies separability. If you disagree, show me the
mathematics of a local state (referring to distinct spacetime

points)

that is not separable -- without begging the question, that is!



Locality refers to the dynamics of a theory, not to properties of

some

particular state.


The properties of the state refer to the dynamics of the

underlying

interactions. In quantum mechanics, the state vector tells you
everything that can be known about the consequences of the

underlying

dynamics.



A Hamiltonian must be specified.


If the Hamiltonian refers to more than one spacetime point, it is
non-local.




The Standard Model is local.


In classical physics, you don't have non-separable
states, but you can get to non-local correlations using only

local

dynamics.


Only in the trivial, everyday, sense of Bertlmann's socks.


In QM you can get to non-separable states using only local
dynamics.


The non-separable state may be created at a single spacetime

point,

but that is not a relevant consideration if the parts then move

apart.



The mere fact that you can have non-classical entangled states
does not imply that the dynamics of the theory is non-local


The fact of non-separable entangled states, which are unique to
quantum mechanics, does imply non-locality.
Vide above
You still have not shown me this magical local state that is
non-separable.


What matters is that the Hamiltonian is local.


Your Hamiltonian might be local. But that is not going to explain the
Bell correlations which involve measurements at two distinct spacetime
points. You are just sidestepping the issue -- show me this magical
local state that is non-separable.

The fact that you keep ducking and weaving on this question, and
similar questions, suggests quite strongly that you do not have an
answer -- that you do not have a local account of the correlations, in
MWI or in any other theory.



It's known that the laws of physics are local, the local account is just 
the time evolution starting from the start using the fundamental 
Hamiltonian that describes all the relevant degrees of freedom in the 
system. You keep on casting doubt on well established physics about the 
Standard Model, QFT and the way it leads to the effective models that 
can be used to describe lab experiments using polarizers.


Saibal


Bruce

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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread smitra

On 09-04-2022 07:03, Bruce Kellett wrote:

On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 11:28 AM smitra  wrote:


On 08-04-2022 07:19, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Permanent records do follow from entanglement and decoherence.

There

is no reason to suppose that algorithms processing information are
going to produce permanent records. Unless they do, they are

useless

as a model of observation. In the words of David Albert

(paraphrased):

"The task of fundamental physics is to explain the manifest image

."




Decoherence is never complete it can in principle be reversed.


No. Measurements are in principle irreversible. Whenever you have a
result entangled with the environment (by decoherence) you inevitably
have low energy IR photons that escape into space. Since these vanish
at the speed of light, they cannot be reversed. The records of results
are permanent, not just FAPP, but in principle, according to the laws
of physics.



These IR photons have nothing whatsoever to do with observation. And 
it's FAPP, not in principle, anyway. If I observe something then that's 
due to my brain processing information, so, it's the processing of 
information by a particular algorithm that's the key thing here, not 
that decoherence happens and that IR photons would make this 
irreversible.


That this is FAPP and not in principle, follows from the fact that IR 
photons can be reflected back. So, one can consider a closed system 
within which an observer exists. If we impose reflecting boundary 
conditions at some distance, then the number of modes of the 
electromagnetic field below a certain energy E is finite. And the amount 
of information carried by photons with wavelength much larger than the 
size of the experimental system is small, as for those photons that are 
emitted, there are only a small number of distinct photon states.




It cannot
reasonably be the case that I can only observe something right now
because a record of the observation is going to exist for eternity.
If
the universe were to reverse its time evolution in 10^15000 years in
a
unitary way, causing all records to be exactly erased, then we could
not
make any observations. What's the physical basis for making this
assumption?


What's the physical basis for assuming the universe can or could
reverse at some point in the future?



That's not a relevant issue here. It's simply that you are linking 
observations to physical processes that have nothing to do with what's 
relevant for observations, which would link it to things like the far 
future of the universe.



You may argue that a FAPP permanent record is good enough for
observation, but you cannot define a physical plausible rigorous
boundary of your FAPP criterion.


I can and have. The irreversibility occasioned by the escape of IR
photons is a rigorous boundary.


The escape of IR photons has nothing whatsoever to do with the ability 
of the brain to process information.





One can always subtract 1 second from
your time limit the universe must keep on expanding before starting
to
evolve backward. One then eventually ends up with the criterion that

there must be enough time for the brain processes that cause the
conscious experience of the observation to be completed.


Irrelevant speculation.



The irrelevant thing here (IR photons) was introduced by you.

Saibal


Bruce

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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread smitra

On 09-04-2022 06:56, Bruce Kellett wrote:

On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 11:02 AM smitra  wrote:


This assumption is not valid in QM. In deterministic theories the
assumption is valid if the theory is local. But by conforming the QM

result one does not prove non-locality. One only proves that a
deterministic theory underlying QM must be nonlocal.


I understood that MWI was deterministic. Then, by your reasoning, it
must be non-local.



Determinism is invoked in the derivation of Bell inequalities in the 
sense of de experimental outcomes being predetermined. That's not the 
case in the MWI because there is not a single outcome.


Saibal


Bruce

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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread smitra

On 09-04-2022 06:43, Bruce Kellett wrote:

On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 1:24 PM smitra  wrote:


On 09-04-2022 04:41, Bruce Kellett wrote:

On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 12:25 PM smitra  wrote:





https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bell%27s_theorem#Many-worlds_interpretation_of_quantum_mechanics


"The Many-Worlds interpretation, also known as the Everett
interpretation, is local and deterministic, as it consists of the
unitary part of quantum mechanics without collapse. It can

generate

correlations that violate a Bell inequality because it doesn't

satisfy

the implicit assumption that Bell made that measurements have a

single

outcome. In fact, Bell's theorem can be proven in the Many-Worlds
framework from the assumption that a measurement has a single

outcome.

Therefore a violation of a Bell inequality can be interpreted as

a

demonstration that measurements have multiple outcomes."


What a remarkably silly argument. The writer here is claiming that
since Bell's theorem doesn't apply to many worlds, many worlds can
give a local account of the correlations. It is amazing that so

many

people claim this, but no one has ever given this remarkable local
account of the Bell correlations; in many worlds, or in any other
theory.



No, it says that MWI is local because of unitary time evolution
(which
is then assumed to be generated by a local Hamiltonian) So, MWI is
local
by definition once we use the correct Hamiltonian defined by the
known
laws of physics. Then given that MWI is local and deterministic and
yet
it violates Bell's inequalities (because it reproduces QM
predictions
correctly), it follows that the MWI must violate an assumption Bell
made. And that is then that measurements have single outcomes. This
is
violated in the MWI. You can also say that this makes MWI violate
realism as John Clark has pointed out often on this list.


So, to end this interminable argument, just give this fabulous local
many worlds account of the Bell correlations. It is all very well to
claim that MWI is manifestly local, then step sideways and avoid
giving the required local account of the correlations. In a sense,
Bell's theorem becomes irrelevant if a local account of the
correlations can be provided. So provide it, and the argument is over.



We start at t = 0 with everything ready to start creating the entangled 
pairs of spins. Alice and Bob will make their way tki distant locations 
and perform measurements on their spins, then return to meet each other 
and compute the correlations using the data in their logbooks. The final 
results will be published at time T. The local account that describes 
the entire process is formally given by:


|final state> = exp[-i H t/hbar]|initial state>

where H is the local Standard Model Hamiltonian.

Saibal




Bruce

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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread John Clark
On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 6:18 PM Bruce Kellett  wrote:

>> After reading your posts on this email list for the last several weeks I
>> have become convinced that nobody will *EVER* be able to convince you of
>> this to your satisfaction because your "scientific" opinion on this
>> matter is based on emotion not logic. And an opinion that is not based
>> on logic cannot be destroyed or even modified by logic, not even in theory.
>> Your mind is invulnerable to any attack logic might mount against it.
>>
>
> *> So you can't provide this local account?*
>

I already have, I tried using a logical argument but that didn't work at
all, your opinion did not change one iota and for reasons you never made
clear. I now don't believe there exists a logical argument that ever would
convince you. It's theoretically conceivable there exists a purely
emotional appeal that would cause you to change your mind, but I'll leave
that to others to find because I'm not very good with that sort of thing.

John K ClarkSee what's on my new list at  Extropolis

yrn


>

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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread spudboy100 via Everything List
Idea. Would not quantum dualism be more possible via the existence of a 4+ 
physical universe(s)? They mirror or extension lives somewhere else out of 
sight. Yet as Galileo once said, "It moves, still." 


-Original Message-
From: George Kahrimanis 
To: Everything List 
Sent: Fri, Apr 8, 2022 3:57 pm
Subject: Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

Saibal wrote
> [...] it's not appropriate to fix up the theory by introducing notions from 
> the macroscopic domain that should in principle follow from the fundamental 
> dynamics at the micro-level. [...]

Brent wrote
> The notion of "result" and "measurement" are not introduced, they are 
> fundamental to knowledge.  They are exactly where MWI gets into trouble. [...]

If there is a disagreement, we should take care to clarify what is it about. A 
putative reductionist view accepts a theory as fundamental, perhaps along with 
some constraints on initial conditions, and claims that "observer", "result", 
and "measurement" will emerge. Right?

I think that this cannot work, because there is some unavoidable approximation 
in the translation from "a quantum state of a part of the world" to "this 
quasi-solid apparatus, observer, and environment (which may be part of the 
observer)". With conventional QM, we express this approximation as the 
very-very small probability of the apparatus quantum-tunneling through the 
floor, and so on. With a MWI, I do not see how we can formulate this 
approximation from the reductionist point of view.

So there is a dualism: The supposedly fundamental theory applies to an 
imagined, objective world, and it also applies to the world of our experience. 
There is a connection of course, because if the latter were untrue then we 
could have no clue about the validity of the theory in the objective world. A 
key notion here is workability of the theory: that it tolerates the 
impossibility of infinite precision, so it works in both worlds.

Brent continued
> [...] By saying there is no result of an experiment it muddles the concept of 
> probability.

Although I have seen proposals for introducing probability in a MWI (Zurek, 
Vaidman, John K. Clark), they cannot refer to the notion of aleatory 
probability, involving randomisation, as when one shuffles a deck of cards or 
shakes and rolls dice. On the other hand, conventional QM does assume that dice 
are rolled, and so the requisite randomisation is supposedly introduced, and we 
can speak of probability proper. Where is the randomisation in a MWI? (A 
rhetorical question.) So, there is no probability (strictly speaking) in a MWI. 
We can only identify something-like-probability; I have posted about this 
subject in a recent thread.

George K.-- 
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Re: At last, an experimental deviation from the standard model of particle physics has been observed

2022-04-09 Thread spudboy100 via Everything List
Just bothering, but yeah repeat the experiment more than once, confirm or deny 
it's validity. If confirmed then its new physics beyond the standard model. My 
question as always is what might be the impact on our species. Nu? Speculation 
is fair because it need not be accurate. 

-Original Message-
From: John Clark 
To: 'Brent Meeker' via Everything List 
Sent: Fri, Apr 8, 2022 8:59 am
Subject: At last, an experimental deviation from the standard model of particle 
physics has been observed

In Yesterday's issue of the journal Science physicist report they have measured 
the mass of the W-Boson, a mediator of the week nuclear force, to within 0.01%, 
by far the most accurate ever made, and they found it differed from the 
theoretical prediction the standard model says it should have by 7 standard 
deviations, only 5 are needed to claim a discovery. If the experimentalists 
have not made some systematic error in their measurements, and currently 
there's no evidence they have, then this is wonderful , the first hint  of 
physics beyond the standard model.  
High-precision measurement of the W boson mass with the CDF II detector
John K Clark    See what's on my new list at  Extropolis
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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread Bruce Kellett
On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 10:19 PM John Clark  wrote:

> On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 7:57 AM Bruce Kellett 
> wrote:
>
> *> So you can provide the long-sought local explanation of the violation
>> of the Bell inequalities, can you? In terms of many worlds, or any other
>> theory you choose. That is interesting, because Saibal is not able to do
>> this. Neither is anyone else on this email list.*
>>
>
> After reading your posts on this email list for the last several weeks I
> have become convinced that nobody will *EVER* be able to convince you of
> this to your satisfaction because your "scientific" opinion on this matter is
> based on emotion not logic. And an opinion that is not based on logic
> cannot be destroyed or even modified by logic, not even in theory. Your
> mind is invulnerable to any attack logic might mount against it.
>


So you can't provide this local account?

Bruce

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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread John Clark
On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 7:57 AM Bruce Kellett  wrote:

*> So you can provide the long-sought local explanation of the violation of
> the Bell inequalities, can you? In terms of many worlds, or any other
> theory you choose. That is interesting, because Saibal is not able to do
> this. Neither is anyone else on this email list.*
>

After reading your posts on this email list for the last several weeks I
have become convinced that nobody will *EVER* be able to convince you of
this to your satisfaction because your "scientific" opinion on this matter is
based on emotion not logic. And an opinion that is not based on logic
cannot be destroyed or even modified by logic, not even in theory. Your
mind is invulnerable to any attack logic might mount against it.

John K ClarkSee what's on my new list at  Extropolis

p7v

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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread Bruce Kellett
On Sat, Apr 9, 2022 at 8:52 PM John Clark  wrote:

> On Fri, Apr 8, 2022 at 10:41 PM Bruce Kellett 
> wrote:
>
> > *Wikipedia is not always a reliable source.*
>>
>>>
>>>
>>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bell%27s_theorem#Many-worlds_interpretation_of_quantum_mechanics
>>>
>>> >>"
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> *The Many-Worlds interpretation, also known as the Everett
>>> interpretation, is local and deterministic, as it consists of the unitary
>>> part of quantum mechanics without collapse. It can generate correlations
>>> that violate a Bell inequality because it doesn't satisfy the implicit
>>> assumption that Bell made that measurements have a single outcome. In fact,
>>> Bell's theorem can be proven in the Many-Worlds framework from the
>>> assumption that a measurement has a single outcome. Therefore a violation
>>> of a Bell inequality can be interpreted as a demonstration that
>>> measurements have multiple outcomes*."
>>>
>>
>> > What a remarkably silly argument.
>>
>
> I agree that, if not silly, it is at least a poor choice of words to say
> "Bell's theorem can be proven in the Many-Worlds" because, given the
> assumptions that Bell made, his theorem can be proven with high school
> algebra alone. If Bell's assumptions are correct then it would be logically
> impossible for his inequality to be violated. But experiment shows that
> Bell's inequality *IS* violated. Therefore AT LEAST one of his
> assumptions must be untrue. They are:
>
> *1*) Determination; everything has a cause,
> *2*) Locality; two things can't influence each other instantly and
> without influencing anything in between and without being diminished by
> distance.
> *3*) Realistic: Wikipedia correctly describes it as "the implicit
> assumption that Bell made that measurements have a single outcome". This is
> the one you have so much difficulty comprehending.
>
> Any quantum interpretation that has all 3 of the above qualities is
> inconsistent with experiment and observation and therefore has dropped out
> of the horse race. The survivors include the Pilot Wave and Transactional
> interpretations which are deterministic and realistic but not local, and
> Many Worlds which is deterministic and local but not realistic. I don't
> think Copenhagen or QBism are really quantum interpretations at all, they
> are more a command than an interpretation, they tell us to just shut up and
> calculate.
>
> Ghirardi–Rimini–Weber (GRW) theory is also not an interpretation but
> instead postulates new laws of physics and significantly modifies
> Schrodinger's Equation so the quantum wave collapse is objectively real.
> DRW is local and realistic but not deterministic. The trouble with it is,
> there is no experimental evidence it's true, the new equation is far more
> difficult to solve than Schrodinger's Equation which is already hard
> enough, and nobody has been able to do what Dirac did for Schrödinger as
> far back as 1927, make GRW's modified equation consistent with Special
> Relativity.
>
> And then of course there is Superdeterminism, it's deterministic
> (obviously),  local. and realistic, but its astronomical violation of
> Occam's razor renders it, not just silly but, silly^(a silly power).
>

So you can provide the long-sought local explanation of the violation of
the Bell inequalities, can you? In terms of many worlds, or any other
theory you choose. That is interesting, because Saibal is not able to do
this. Neither is anyone else on this email list. And I am quite confident
that this is because no such local explanation of these correlations is
possible, since the situation is intrinsically non-local.

Bruce

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Re: The Nature of Contingency: Quantum Physics as Modal Realism

2022-04-09 Thread John Clark
On Fri, Apr 8, 2022 at 10:41 PM Bruce Kellett  wrote:

> *Wikipedia is not always a reliable source.*
>
>>
>>
>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bell%27s_theorem#Many-worlds_interpretation_of_quantum_mechanics
>>
>> >>"
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> *The Many-Worlds interpretation, also known as the Everett
>> interpretation, is local and deterministic, as it consists of the unitary
>> part of quantum mechanics without collapse. It can generate correlations
>> that violate a Bell inequality because it doesn't satisfy the implicit
>> assumption that Bell made that measurements have a single outcome. In fact,
>> Bell's theorem can be proven in the Many-Worlds framework from the
>> assumption that a measurement has a single outcome. Therefore a violation
>> of a Bell inequality can be interpreted as a demonstration that
>> measurements have multiple outcomes*."
>>
>
> > What a remarkably silly argument.
>

I agree that, if not silly, it is at least a poor choice of words to say
"Bell's theorem can be proven in the Many-Worlds" because, given the
assumptions that Bell made, his theorem can be proven with high school
algebra alone. If Bell's assumptions are correct then it would be logically
impossible for his inequality to be violated. But experiment shows that
Bell's inequality *IS* violated. Therefore AT LEAST one of his assumptions
must be untrue. They are:

*1*) Determination; everything has a cause,
*2*) Locality; two things can't influence each other instantly and without
influencing anything in between and without being diminished by distance.
*3*) Realistic: Wikipedia correctly describes it as "the implicit
assumption that Bell made that measurements have a single outcome". This is
the one you have so much difficulty comprehending.

Any quantum interpretation that has all 3 of the above qualities is
inconsistent with experiment and observation and therefore has dropped out
of the horse race. The survivors include the Pilot Wave and Transactional
interpretations which are deterministic and realistic but not local, and
Many Worlds which is deterministic and local but not realistic. I don't
think Copenhagen or QBism are really quantum interpretations at all, they
are more a command than an interpretation, they tell us to just shut up and
calculate.

Ghirardi–Rimini–Weber (GRW) theory is also not an interpretation but
instead postulates new laws of physics and significantly modifies
Schrodinger's Equation so the quantum wave collapse is objectively real.
DRW is local and realistic but not deterministic. The trouble with it is,
there is no experimental evidence it's true, the new equation is far more
difficult to solve than Schrodinger's Equation which is already hard
enough, and nobody has been able to do what Dirac did for Schrödinger as
far back as 1927, make GRW's modified equation consistent with Special
Relativity.

And then of course there is Superdeterminism, it's deterministic
(obviously),  local. and realistic, but its astronomical violation of
Occam's razor renders it, not just silly but, silly^(a silly power).

John K ClarkSee what's on my new list at  Extropolis

gqs



>

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