RE: Re: Re: Rigor mortis?

2002-03-04 Thread Devine, James

Alan writes:The problem I see with the (mainstream) economics
profession---and I suspect that this is what many people on this list
rightly object to---is the exaltation of mathematical formalism above all
else. If formal models were taken as just _one more_ tool in the economists'
toolkit then we probably wouldn't be having this discussion. 

right. The problem is that economists use math as a way of proving and
gaining status in the profession. If you don't do math, you don't rise to
the top. 

Speaking of which, though I learned a bunch from the post-Keynesian
economist Paul Davidson, I found that the few times he tried to use math
were the most illuminating. This suggests that the problem isn't the math as
much as the equilibrium conceptions that math encourages. 

More generally, math by its very nature describes an idealized world. That
doesn't mean that it shouldn't be used as much as that it has to be used
_very carefully_ if one's goal is to understand the world. But the vast
majority of economists aren't careful. -- Jim Devine 




RE: Re: Rigor mortis?

2002-03-04 Thread Devine, James

Michael Perelman writes:Marshall's biography -- he is also a villian in
this piece -- shows that he pushed formalization of econ. to prevent
outsiders from taking part in the subject.

this fits with my sense that economists embrace math so fervently partly
because it provides a basis for Mandarinism. (Mandarinism refers to the
pre-20th century practice of requiring would-be Chinese state bureaucrats to
take examinations in stuff like calligraphy that had nothing at all to do
with their ability to rule.) 

I have little faith that formal models clarify much or avoid
misrepresentations of reality.  I have asked the list for examples of formal
models that have taught them anything that they could not have learned by
other means.  I think Peter Dorman may have been the only one who
responded.

I found that in order to talk about -- and to understand --
dynamic-disequilibrium growth theory (in my dissertation), math was totally
necessary. In one model, the equilibrium is stable in the short run, but as
the equilibrium persists, it becomes unstable. Nicholas Kaldor had a
business cycle model along those lines. 

One of the big differences between my models and those of the orthodox
school is that like Joan Robinson, I believe that we need to understand
processes in historical time rather than in the totally hypothetical and
unrealistic logical time of neoclassical economics.

Jim Devine




Re: RE: Re: Rigor mortis?

2002-03-04 Thread Michael Perelman

Daniel, I don't disagree with you, although the PBS television show, Nova, did
do a pretty good job.  I was asking about the examples of models that were able
to teach something about the nature of the economy.  Obviously, mathematics is
important in finance, but I'm not sure how much it can teach about how financial
machinations affect the economy.

Davies, Daniel wrote:

 I've yet to see a decent explanation of risk-neutral pricing (most normally
 seen in the context of the Black-Scholes and/or Cox/Ingersoll/Ross options
 pricing models, but a very powerful economic idea of very general
 application) which didn't involve some sort of formalism.  I'm not saying it
 can't be done, but I don't know how one would go about it.


--

Michael Perelman
Economics Department
California State University
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Chico, CA 95929
530-898-5321
fax 530-898-5901




RE: Re: RE: Re: Rigor mortis?

2002-03-04 Thread Davies, Daniel

-Original Message-
From: Michael Perelman [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
Sent: 04 March 2002 16:43
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: [PEN-L:23467] Re: RE: Re: Rigor mortis?


Daniel, I don't disagree with you, although the PBS television show, Nova,
did
do a pretty good job.  I was asking about the examples of models that were
able
to teach something about the nature of the economy.  Obviously, mathematics
is
important in finance, but I'm not sure how much it can teach about how
financial
machinations affect the economy.
==

here beginneth the apologia 

I tend to think that option theory actually has a much wider application
than just in finance.  For example (to plug the only piece I've ever
published in anything even resembling an academic journal), you can model
the payoffs to the owner of a limited liability company as the equivalent of
the payoffs on a strip of put options.  The idea is that, if the firm's
assets are worth more than its liabilities on the next audit date, the owner
gets a payoff equal to the positive difference between assets and
liabilities (plus the ability to play the game for one more year), whereas
if the assets are lower in value than the liabilities, the owner's losses
are capped.

For this reason, owners of limited liability firms have an incentive to
maximise the volatility of their assets, and this incentive increases the
futher out of the money the option moves.  This explains the Nick Leeson
gambling for redemption phenomenon.  It's possible to put it in less
mathematical terms, but I don't think you get the feel of it unless you know
how to interpret vega (the sensitivity of the value of an option to a change
in the volatility of the underlying).

And that's not even touching the general issue of risk-neutral pricing,
which I am currently constructively proving my point by not being able to
give a sensible example of without using maths.  Basically, this is an issue
in the selection of the appropriate discount rate for a set of risky future
payments under particular assumptions about one's ability to manage the
risk.  

There are a knot of finance theory concepts here, but they're all terribly
important:

The CAPM tells me that if the risk of an investment I propose to make is
like that of a lottery -- it's more or less a completely random number, like
prospecting for opals in Australia --, then I ought to make an unbiased
forecast of the future payoffs, and discount these back to the present at
the *risk-free* rate.  I use the risk free rate in this case because if I
have enough of these projects, I can diversify this risk away and be more or
less certain of getting the actuarial expectation.

The CAPM also tells me that if my investment is correlated with the wider
economy, and if the nature of the project is that I basically invest my
capital now, and find out in the next time period whether I'm a winner or a
loser (say, I'm thinking about distilling Scotch, and once I've put it in
the barrels, there's nothing I can do except hope that people want to buy it
in fifteen years), then I should adjust my discount rate upwards according
to the *covariance* of the return on the project with my expected
consumption.  So if my Scotch is Johnnie Walker Black Label, then I should
want a higher discount rate, because the event under which I get rich out of
this business is one in which I'm rich anyway (a stock market boom in
Japan), whereas if it's rotgut hooch, then I'd be prepared to accept a lower
rate of return than Treasury bonds, because the rotgut hooch business would
make me a big winner exactly in the sort of recessionary economy in which
I'd need the money.  I'll assume that this sort of intuitive explanation
will do; in actual fact, to prove that covariance rather than variance is
the relevant measure of risk, you need some pretty hairy maths.

But risk-neutral pricing is something else.  It says that if the nature of
my business is one where I can make day-to-day changes to my output -- if I
can *manage* the risk -- I ought to be setting out a plan to manage this
risk, counting up the payoffs on various branches of the plan, and then
discounting these cashflows at the *risk-free* rate of interest.  The reason
for this is (I contend) impossible to describe without getting into some
sort of formalism, but it's got a lot to do with the fact that at any one
stage in my plan, I can be hedged against the next small movement, so each
node of my decision tree has me in a situation where (consistent with the
plan) I have no risk, so the whole plan should be treated as a risk-free
project.  Which sounds awfully like a fallacy of composition, and you need
the maths to prove that it isn't.

Broadly speaking, finance (and its close cousin actuarial science) is the
branch of economics which deals with uncertainty and time, so I don't see
how it can fail to be relevant to the central questions of economics.  Even
something as simple as compound

RE: Re: Rigor mortis?

2002-03-04 Thread Devine, James

Eric writes: This does not mean that math models are not helpful when we
consider the real world. They can point out possible mechanisms and
connections that are unlikely to be discovered in other forms of
discourse.

I think it's important to remember that the phrase the real world is
redundant. 

Also, isn't it more accurate to say tht math models can clarify one's
thinking about possible mechanisms and connections instead of allowing
them to be discovered? The discovery seems to be a pre-mathematical stage of
the analysis.

Jim Devine [EMAIL PROTECTED]   http://bellarmine.lmu.edu/~jdevine




RE: Re: Rigor mortis?

2002-03-04 Thread Eric Nilsson

Jim D wrote,
 I think it's important to remember that the phrase the real world is
 redundant.

I guess this depends on one's epistemology, but I don't want to start any
discussion about epistemology. Pen-l seems to have a lot on its plate now.
;)

 Also, isn't it more accurate to say tht math models can clarify one's
 thinking about possible mechanisms and connections instead of allowing
 them to be discovered? The discovery seems to be a
 pre-mathematical stage of the analysis.

I think that both things can happen but I that sometimes that discovering
stuff with a math model can be more interesting than clarifying one's
thinking.

Having said that, the math work I'm doing now fits into the latter approach
(clarifying)..

Eric
.




Re: Re: Rigor mortis?

2002-03-03 Thread Alan Cibils

At  3/3/2002, you wrote:
I have little faith that formal models clarify much or avoid 
misrepresentations
of reality  I have asked the list for examples of formal models that have
taught them anything that they could not have learned by other means  I think
Peter Dorman may have been the only one who responded

Michael Perelman

I have problems with the way this issue is posed in the above paragraph

1) Any explanation of an economic issue  can have misrepresentations of 
reality and not clarify much regardless of the  method chosen (a formal 
model, plain text, or whatever method one chooses)

2) For some, formal models may be an easier way to understand what an 
economist is trying to say than plain words This has to do with the way a 
particular individual learns and with the ability of the one doing the 
explaining, among other variables (so to speak!) For example, doing a 
static CGE model helped me understand the inner workings of the 
neoclassical framework a lot better than many critical texts Not that the 
texts themselves were bad, things clicked with the model in a way they 
haden't before

The problem I see with the (mainstream) economics profession---and I 
suspect that this is what many people on this list rightly object to---is 
the exaltation of mathematical formalism above all else If formal models 
were taken as just _one more_ tool in the economists' toolkit then we 
probably wouldn't be having this discussion

Alan



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RE: Re: Rigor mortis?

2002-03-03 Thread Davies, Daniel


I have little faith that formal models clarify much or avoid
misrepresentations
of reality.  I have asked the list for examples of formal models that have
taught them anything that they could not have learned by other means.  I
think
Peter Dorman may have been the only one who responded.

I've yet to see a decent explanation of risk-neutral pricing (most normally
seen in the context of the Black-Scholes and/or Cox/Ingersoll/Ross options
pricing models, but a very powerful economic idea of very general
application) which didn't involve some sort of formalism.  I'm not saying it
can't be done, but I don't know how one would go about it.

dd


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