Re: Vaccine objectors

2015-02-01 Thread Perry Dane
 

Hi all, 

Without getting deeply mired myself (right now) in the
normative implications here, it might still be worth noting that: 

1.
Exemptions from vaccination requirements only become a serious public
health issue when they increase to the point of threatening herd
immunity. That is to say, we can -- from a public health perspective --
tolerate some exemptions, but not too many. 

2. According to some
studies, states that allow personal in addition to religious
exemptions, and states that grant exemptions easily, have (not a
surprise) a higher rate of non-vaccinators than states that limit
exemptions to religious motives or put more hurdles (documentation,
etc.) in the way of folks seeking exemptions. See, e.g.,
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/17032989 

3. It might even be
possible, though I don't have any numbers to support this, that limiting
exemptions to genuine religious objectors, and defining religion in
any of the standard ways, would produce a rate of non-vaccination low
enough not to pose a major public health risk. (That still leaves, of
course, the question of risk to the individual unvaccinated child. But
even that risk might be considerably reduced if herd immunity is in
place.) 

That is to say, vaccination might be one of those contexts in
which society has a solid compelling interest in enforcing a rule
overall but not necessarily a compelling interest in enforcing that rule
on genuinely religious objectors. (That was, for better or worse,
Burger's argument in _Yoder_). 

The obvious challenge here is to the
religion is not special view. If leveling up produces distinctly bad
results (of a sort not produced by more limited religious exemptions),
should that be a reason to level down and eliminate all exemptions?
That is to say, should religious objectors lose rights they might
otherwise have if too many non-religious folks want to get on the
bandwagon? 

And even for the rest of us, who do think that religion is
special, the intrusion of these sorts of facts creates a quandary. What
if, for example, one part of the country has a number of religious
objectors below the herd immunity threshold and another part of the
country has a number above the threshold? How should law respond? 

As I
said, I'm just asking the question here, not trying to answer it.


Perry ___
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Re: Vaccine objectors

2015-02-01 Thread Perry Dane
 

Marty, 

I agree with # 1, except in states that might have a
particularly robust state free exercise doctrine. 

I also agree with #
2. 

The issue with respect to # 3, though, is this: What if it turns
out that an exemption regime limited to actual religious objections (and
not personal ones) did not produce serious third-party burdens because
the number of kids left unvaccinated would not be enough to compromise
herd immunity? 

Such a regime would, I believe, be constitutional.
But it does raise at least a question for folks who (a) argue that
religion is not special, (b) it is generally unfair to limit exemption
regimes to folks with religious motives, and (c) the best remedy to such
unfairness should generally be to level up to include deep
non-religious beliefs rather than level down to eliminate exemptions
entirely. 

Perry 

On 02/01/2015 10:38 pm, Marty Lederman wrote: 


I'm a bit confused as to which question Perry and Sandy (and Doug?) are
discussing. To break it down a bit for clarification: 
 1. It would be
perfectly constitutional for the state to require everyone to be
vaccinated; a fortiori, vaccination can be made a condition of attending
school. That's basically what the Second Circuit case is about; and of
course it's correct. 
 2. It would also be perfectly constitutional for
the state to exempt any children whose parents have a personal
objection to immunization, religious or otherwise. The only question as
to those exemption laws is one of policy -- and I'd hope that recent
events cause state legislatures to seriously consider repealing such
exemptions. 
 3. But if a state chooses to exempt people only for
religious reasons, that raises not only a policy question (which is the
one I intended to raise in starting this thread -- should other states
follow MS and WV in refusing to grant even religious exemptions?), but
also a serious Establishment Clause question, in light of the
third-party burdens (those borne by the children who are not immunized
as well as the children who are made more susceptible to disease). I
haven't checked in a while, but I believe no court has ever held such
religious exemptions unconstitutional except where they discriminate
among religions. I am inclined to say that they are unconstitutional
even where not discriminatory; but the case law does not, as far as I
know, yet support that view.
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RE: Vaccine objectors

2015-02-01 Thread Perry Dane
 

Sandy, 

Normatively, I do think that when the risk to the health of
a child is grave and imminent, the state can and should intervene and
require treatment. 

Perry 

On 02/01/2015 11:31 pm, Levinson, Sanford V
wrote: 

 I'm still not certain what Perry's position is re the
Jehovah's Witness children, where the adverse consequences are
internalized to the child. 
 
 sandy
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Re: science professor lecture

2014-09-30 Thread Perry Dane
 

Hi all, 

I agree with others that this issue gets complicated by
the professor's own academic freedom and the related question of whether
the views expressed in his lecture should be ascribed to the state.


Putting all that aside, though, the lecture is clearly dubious as a
matter of quasi-constitutional ethics. 

A few years ago, I reacted, in
a letter to editor published in _Academe_, to a similar bit of
overreaching by a science professor. See
http://www.jstor.org/stable/40253040 

By the way, that letter of mine
raises an ancillary question: It does seem to me that, however much we
might respect the science professor's academic freedom, there would be a
real constitutional problem if he penalized students who, while willing
and able to demonstrate their mastery over the scientific content of the
class, explicitly disagreed with him about the underlying Truth value of
that science. 

Take care. 

 Perry 

 On Sep 28, 2014, at 5:24 PM,
Marc Stern ste...@ajc.org [1] wrote: 
 
 Today's NY Times Review
section has an article by a professor of evolutionary biology at a
public university describing a lecture he gives annually explaining how
that body of science ‎ has undermined central claims of religious
traditions. 
 
 Is it constitutional for him to give this lecture?
Would it be constitutional for a professor of theology at the same
university to offer a rebuttal in religious terms? 
 
 Marc



Links:
--
[1] mailto:ste...@ajc.org
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Re: Attenuation

2014-07-02 Thread Perry Dane
 

Steve Jamar wrote: 

 [1] How about owning stock in companies that
make and sell contraceptives? They had to sign a contract to do that. 


 [2] The distance between doing the improper thing -- selling, paying
for, using contraceptives -- and buying general health insurance with
coverages mandated by the government is attenuated sufficiently for me.
However, I understand how one can rhetorically manipulate these matters
as Prof. Dane (and I) have done. And that is fully fair game and 5
justices agreed with one rethorical approach and 4 did not. 5 thought
religion under RFRA should trump the other values (as a matter of
statutory interpretation); 4 did not.

Point 1 simply confirms that we
all draw have to draw lines of causation and moral responsibility
somewhere, and those different lines will be embedded in a variety of
discourses and grounded in a variety of different assumptions. 

As to
point 2, I don't think that 5 justices agreed with Hobby Lobby's
conclusions about causation and moral responsibility. They simply, and
correctly, accepted them as religious views. It's as if Hobby Lobby had
just said, for religious reasons, we can't sign a document that alludes
to 'Plan B, Ella, or intrauterine devices.' It's just something about
those words.

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Attenuation

2014-07-01 Thread Perry Dane
 

 Steve Jamar writes: I do not reject the legitimacy nor the
religiousity of the plaintiff's beliefs. Quite the contrary; I accept
them and undertstand them. But I do not accept that we should accept a
complicity with evil claim when it becomes too attenuated as it is here.
The inquiry is attenuation, not substantive on the sinfulness nor
evilness nor legitimacy of the beliefs. 

 With all due respect,
though, I have always found the attenuation claim the least convincing
of the arguments against Hobby Lobby's position. 

 As the majority
opinion suggests, and as many of us have been saying for a long time,
Hobby Lobby needs to be understood as putting on the table two distinct
religious claims: (1) Certain forms of contraception should not be used.
(2) Hobby Lobby and/or its owners are religiously prohibited from
signing insurance contracts that cover those same forms of
contraception. Of course, Hobby Lobby has religious reasons taking it
from claim (1) to claim (2). But it's not the business of the secular
state to second-guess the quality of that reasoning. In fact, as far as
the secular state is concerned, claim (1) should be essentially
irrelevant. All that really counts is claim (2). 

 Imagine an observant
Jewish prison inmate who asks for kosher food. The prison administration
tells him, We're happy to give you kosher food. We'll also be sure not
to give you meat meals and dairy meals within however many hours of each
other you think is religiously significant. But we can't give you
separate (or disposable) plates for your meat and dairy meals. That
would just be too expensive or complicated for us to do. The prisoner
responds, That's not good enough, I'm afraid. As a matter of Jewish
law, hot foot transfers its 'taste' to plates, which in turn transfer
the 'taste' to other food served on those plates, even if the plates are
thoroughly washed between uses. So I need separate or disposable
plates. (There are more technicalities that I won't get into.) The
prison administration replies, That's just silly. No 'taste' gets
transferred. We understand that you have religious reasons for not
eating meat and dairy food together, and we'll grant you that
accommodation, but this argument you're making about plates and such is
just too attenuated. 

 I suspect that most courts, and most of us,
would reject this defense of attenuation. (This has nothing to do with
arguments over compelling interest, less restrictive means, etc.) Jewish
law's conclusion [that (1) a ban on mixing dairy and meat foods entails
(2) a ban on using the same dishes for dairy and meat foods] might be
wacky from a secular or scientific point of view, but it's not up to the
secular state to second-guess that view. Indeed, all the secular state
needs to know is that the prisoner has a religious need not to eat meat
and dairy meals from the same plates. If the prisoner is to lose, it
will not be because his claim is too attenuated. 

 I think the hangup
in the Hobby Lobby context is this: We all appreciate that Jewish law
and other system of religious ritual law often conceptualize the world
in wacky-seeming ways very different from ordinary reasoning. The
separate-plates rule is the least of it. (I say all this with all due
respect; I guide some of my life by those wacky conceptualizations.)
Hobby Lobby, on the other hand, seems to be using a form of argument
(complicity with evil) that has a much clearer secular analogue. But
that's deceptive. Hobby Lobby is using religious reasoning, not secular
reasoning. That doesn't mean it should win at the end of the day. But it
does mean that's it objection to signing certain health insurance
contracts shouldn't just be dismissed as too attenuated. More to the
point, we really should -- as an analytic and doctrinal matter -- just
ignore Hobby Lobby's underlying objection to certain contraceptives; all
that should matter is that it objects for religious reasons to signing
the damn contracts. 

 Perry 

--

* 
Perry Dane 
Professor of
Law 
Rutgers University School of Law


*
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Contraception mandate

2013-08-01 Thread Perry Dane
 

Hi all, 

I've posted a short essay -- half of a projected exchanged
-- that tries to speak sanely about the contraceptive mandate debate.
The piece offers a doctrinal analysis, but also explores how the debate
-- and in particular the overblown claims by both sides -- suggest some
imperfectly articulated undercurrents in the current American
conversation about religion and the law. See
http://ssrn.com/abstract=2296635 

Comments would, of course, be
welcome. 

 Perry 

*

Perry
Dane
Professor of Law 
Rutgers University School of
Law

d...@crab.rutgers.edu 

Bio: www.camlaw.rutgers.edu/bio/925/ 
SSRN
Author page: http://www.ssrn.com/author=48596
Academia.edu page:
rutgers.academia.edu/PerryDane

*

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Saint Stanislaus Kostka Church in St. Louis

2013-02-25 Thread Perry Dane


Hi all,
Some years
ago, Saint Stanislaus Kostka Church, a Roman Catholic parish church in
St. Louis, got into a dispute with the Catholic bishop in St.
Louis. the Bishop tried to assert his authority over Saint
Stanislaus, and when the folks running the church refused, the declared
them to be in schism. The fight ended up in the courts. Saint
Stanislaus, however, had an advantage that virtually no other
Catholic parish has -- (secular) title to its own property, a vestige of
a once-common 19th century form of organization for Catholic
churches. Last March, a trial judge in St. Louis ruled, remarkably,
against the Bishop and in favor of the local parish. The two sides
have now settled: Saint Stanislaus keeps its building and assets, but
agrees not to represent itself as affiliated with the Roman Catholic
Church. See

http://ncronline.org/news/faith-parish/st-louis-archdiocese-gives-fight-control-breakaway-parish

Does
anyone on this list happen to have a copy of the original March 2012
opinion (apparently in the neighborhood of 50 pages long) by Judge
Hettenbach? I assume he relied on a neutral principles of
law analysis, but I'd love to see the actual opinion. It
doesn't seem to be available on either Lexis or Westlaw, and as best as I
can tell the Missouri judicial web sites only post appellate
opinions.
Feel free
to reply privately. And apologies if this has been discussed
previously on the list.
Thanks.




Perry




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Circumcision

2012-07-12 Thread Perry Dane

Marty,

This is sensible.

Obviously, these categories bleed into each other (no pun intended).

Perry



From: Marty Lederman lederman.ma...@gmail.com
Date: Wed, 11 Jul 2012 16:49:33 -0400


Perry:  very helpful.  Would you add this as a third category?:  if 
the state demonstrates that many (most) adult men regret their 
parents' decision to circumcise.  It's if and when that ever happens 
-- not before -- that this will seem like a difficult question.


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Circumcision

2012-07-12 Thread Perry Dane


My answers
here should also be informed by Marty's sensible third category of likely
regret. But I'll limit myself to the two categories I tried to
outline in my earlier post.
(1)
Tattooing: I don't like tattoos. I actually often find myself
physically repulsed by them. My own religion forbids them.
But if parents had a serious religious reason for tattooing their
underage child (note that I'm limiting myself here to religious reasons),
I would not want the state to intervene unless the tattooing were of a
sort that involved severe pain or was likely to have genuinely harmful
long-term physical, psychological, or sociological consequences for the
child. 
(2)
Sterliziation: The state could reasonably conclude that forcibly
sterilizing a child produces the grave harm of eliminating that child's
ability to make future reproductive choices. Here, the issue of
competent consent is inextricably tied up with the procedure.
Adults who have themselves sterilized are making a reproductive choice;
children who are sterilized without their consent are deprived of all
future such choices. 
(3)
Pregnancy: It does seem to me that society could reasonably
conclude that pregnancy by a 14-year-old is developmentally inappropriate
for both physical and psychological reasons. To be sure, we should
respect the kid's autonomous rights in this context, at least to the
extent of, for example, not allowing either the state or the kid's
parents to force her to have an abortion. But, as Eugene
emphasizes, that doesn't mean that we do or should excuse the
culpable role that others might play in getting the kid
pregnant.
Obviously,
one of the issues in all these comparisons is my sense that circumcision
is not as big a deal as some would suggest. Apart from its
religious significance for many folks, it does seem to have serious
health benefits, including but limited to helping to prevent HIV
infection, which is why there's a major campaign in parts of Africa to
have as many men as possible sterilized. Moreover, it clearly does
not eliminate sexual sensitivity or gratification, or even reduce it to
the extent that millions upon millions of circumcised men are heard
lamenting their fate. Indeed, the jury is out as to whether it has
any real effect on sexual sensitivity or gratification at all. And
even if it did lead to some small reduction in sheer physical
sensitivity, that would strike me as only dubiously relevant: it
assumes that the quality of sex is tied in a purely linear way to the
quantity of a particular physical stimulus. 
Add to all
this the point I made earlier: To the extent that the act of
circumcision itself is potentially disturbing or physically complicated
for the one being circumcised, that's much more true for adults than for
eight-day-year-old baby boys. 
Let me,
though, throw out a hypothetical of my own. Say that baby is born
with a very large and very visible and, by most lights, unsightly mole on
his or her face. The mole poses no health risk to the child.
But it is very ugly. The doctors tell the parents that they can
remove the mole completely with very little risk to the child.
Having the mole removed as an adult would be possible, but somewhat more
complicated. In any event, if the procedure were put off, the child
would grow up with the mole still on his or her face.
The
parents decide to have the mole removed (1) for aesthetic reasons and/or
(2) because they're concerned that the sense of social identity or
psychological health of the child will be impaired if they do not have
the mole removed.
Should the
state intervene in this decision? Should it be entitled to?
Would these parents' aesthetic and psychological concerns be more worthy
of respect than the religious motives of parents who have their baby boys
circumcised? Should it matter that the aesthetic judgment of the
mole is culture-specific, or that in some other cultures such a mole
would actually be thought to be a mark of great beauty?
If a
response to this hypo is that circumcision is different from mole-removal
because it cuts off a sexually sensitive part of the body, then I can
tweak the hypo slightly to assume the mole removal (1) will have a
minimal negative consequence such as, say, ever-so-slightly blunting the
kid's sense of smell, and (2) it will also have some positive medical
consequences, such as reducing the risk of certain sorts of infections,
and I can further assume that the parents, taking into account these
facts in addition to their aesthetic and psychological concerns, still go
ahead with asking the doctors to remove the mole. I'm not sure
these tweaks change the equation very much.
If,
though, the answer is that circumcision is different simply because moles
are defects while foreskins are natural parts of the male
human body, that reaction would strike me as just physically
essentialist. What if the aformentioned mole weren't all that rare,
but actually appeared on 5% of babies, but almost all parents in a given
culture 

Circumcision

2012-07-11 Thread Perry Dane

Hi,

Just a couple of general thoughts:

1. Most everyone, including Eugene, admits that parents are empowered  
within broad limits to make all sorts of major decisions, inlcuding  
decisions with likely irreversible consequences, on behalf of their  
minor children.  These include decisions about education, religious  
training (or lack of it), form of community (e.g., living in a small  
rural town vs. living in Manhattan), forms of cultural exposure or  
immersion, and etc., etc., etc.


I therefore don't see why we should take seriously a bright line  
between physical interventions such as circumcision and all these  
other myriad ways that parents (often irreverisbily) influence their  
children's lives.  Indeed, even with respect to the narrow question of  
sexual gratification, circumcision is probably very low (even if it  
appears at all) on the list of deeply consequential parental  
interventions, conscious and unconscious.


2. It also bears emphasis that most everyone, including the  
non-libertarians among us, admit that adult men should have the right  
to have themselves circumcised.  That is not merely because the adult  
has the capacity to consent.  There are all sorts of things that even  
consenting adults don't have the right to do.  Rather, it is because  
society doesn't understand circumcision -- and in particular  
circumcision for religious reasons -- to be the sort of dire act that  
requires its intervention.  A doctor who, at a patient's request, cut  
off a patient's arm for no good medical reason would likely be charged  
with a crime or at least stripped of his or her license, and the  
patient would very likely be institutionalized.  No such consequence  
would follow for an adult circumcision procedure.  Put another way,  
when the Supreme Court in the Paris Adult Theatre case gave us its  
litany of acts that can be criminalized even among consenting adults  
-- prostitution, suicide, voluntary self-mutilation, brutalizing  
'bare fist' prize fights, and duels -- it clearly did not have adult  
circumcision in mind as a form of self-mutilation.


It seems to me that, in the light of the special role that parents  
play in the upbringing of their children, the state should bear an  
added burden when it tries to limit the right of parents to make a  
decision for their child that it would not keep them from making for  
themselves themselves.  That burden can, I think, be met in at least  
two circumstances:  (1) when the state is trying to prevent an  
unquestionably grave harm, physical or psychological, to the child,  
and (2) when the state is making a demonstrably reasonable judgemnt  
that certain acts are not developmentally appropriate for children  
even apart from the lack (or for that matter the presence) of consent.  
 The first category clearly doesn't apply here, particularly since  
even the purely medical evidence about the pros and cons of  
circumicision remains complicated and controversial.  The second  
category would cover everything from child labor to sexual abuse and  
so on.  But circumcision (need i say more?) is actually more  
developmentally appropriate for an eight-day old baby than for an adult.


Take care.

Perry


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Is a patient who believes Jesus would save [me] competent to refuse life-saving medical treatment?

2010-07-16 Thread Perry Dane



As a general
matter, it's always seemed to me that determinations of mental competence
with respect to a specific judgment should not be based solely on the
rationality of that specific judgment, but should look
instead to the entirety of a person's mental state. 
Even
putting that view to one side, though, the crucial question in this case,
I think, is not whether J.M. believes in miracles, even to a degree that
the rest of us would find over-optimistic, but whether she understands,
as a matter of pure fact, that a miracle would be necessary to save her
life. 
I'm also
bothered by the focus on the inconsistency and unorthodoxy of
her views. If the case is viewed through the lens of religious
liberty, it should be clear that protected religious commitments need be
neither consistent nor orthodox. And if the case is simply viewed
under the rubric of patient autonomy, it seems odd that
irrational decisions unsupported by medical
evidence would be protected, but confidence in miracles (however
unreasonable, inconsistent, or unorthodox that confidence is) would not
be.
Finally,
as to consistency: Even a non-religious person with no faith in
miracles might well distinguish between blood transfusions and
resuscitation, which are one-time life-saving procedures, and dialysis,
which involves an indefinite course of often enervating, dispiriting,
treatment. The point in that non-religious case would not be that
the person wanted to die, but that he or she was willing to undergo some
procedures but not others, in order to live. In the case of J.M.,
it might be that she thinks that God wants her to look to doctors to save
her life through transfusions, resuscitation, etc., but would intervene
miraculously to avoid her having to suffer the torment of dialysis.
This is not a judgment I would make, but I'm not J.M.
Take
care.




Perry

From: Volokh, Eugene
vol...@law.ucla.edu
Date: Thu, 15 Jul 2010 14:58:50 -0700
 From

In
re

Matter of J.M. (N.J. Super. Ct.),

http://www.judiciary.state.nj.us/decisions/BER_P_036_10.pdf, just
released earlier this month (for some interesting reader comments, see
http://volokh.com/2010/07/15/is-a-patient-who-believes-jesus-would-save-me-competent-to-refuse-life-saving-medical-treatment/#comments):
A patient has capacity to consent to medical treatment if she can
reasonably understand her condition, the effect of the proposed
treatment, and the risks of both undergoing and refusing the treatment.
In re Conroy, 98 N.J. 321, 382 (1985). Of the three psychiatrists
who testified, two of them determined J.M. lacked capacity to refuse
dialysis. Dr. Psemar indicated J.M. does not acknowledge the risk of
refusing dialysis. She demonstrated anxiety, depression, and an inability
to problem-solve. Dr. Dealwis testified J.M. did not believe she would
die if not treated, and therefore, was not making a reasoned decision to
choose death over dialysis. They both believed that because she did not
understand the likely consequences of refusing treatment, she lacked
capacity to make decisions about her health. The dissenting psychiatrist,
Dr. Scham, acknowledged that he is not an expert in competency
evaluations and only does five to six of them every year. He said J.M.’s
mental status is clear and she has adequate judgment, but he also
acknowledged her views were inconsistent in that she accepted blood
transfusions and resuscitation, but not dialysis. Dr. Scham believed that
J.M. understood she would die without dialysis, yet he also testified
J.M. stated “God would save her.” When J.M. herself testified, she
asserted that she would not die without dialysis because Jesus would save
her 
A competent patient is able to choose his course of treatment even if his
medical decision may seem irrational or unsupported by medical evidence.
[Footnote: New Jersey courts have ruled that a patient found to be
competent and aware of the consequences of her decision may exercise her
right to refuse treatment for any reason, including when treatment
violates the tenets of her religion. Further, guardians of incompetent
patients must consider the tenets of a patient’s religion when
determining the proper course of treatment. J.M.’s refusal of treatment
was not premised upon an established tenet of her religion precluding
certain medical procedures, as evidenced by her consent to all other
medical treatment and her pastor’s attempt to convince her to undergo
dialysis. As a result, her belief that God would save her does not
preclude her from being found incompetent, nor does the appointed
guardian need to act on that professed belief.] If a patient is unable to
understand the consequences of the decision, however, that patient is
unable to give informed consent and is therefore incapacitated.
The Court found, by clear and convincing evidence, that J.M. does not
have the capacity to make a decision regarding dialysis. She had no
long-lasting psychiatric disability, but rather demonstrated a lack of
understanding of 

Re: EEOC says Catholic College Discriminated by Removing Contraceptive Coverage from Health Insurance

2009-08-17 Thread Perry Dane

Michael Masinter wrote:


Contraceptives prevent pregnancy, and only women get pregnant.
Denying contraceptive coverage to men does not expose men to
pregnancy, but denying coverage to women does expose women to
pregnancy.


Let's tease out the issues here.  It's possible that denying 
coverage for contraceptives violates the PDA because of its 
consequences for the risk of unwanted pregnancy, a risk whose effect 
is uniquely borne by women.  If that's true, though, it shouldn't 
matter who is using the contraceptives, men or women.  Let's call 
this the PDA argument.


But, as I understand it, the EEOC didn't make the PDA 
argument, at least as such.  Instead, it wrote that By denying 
prescription contraception drugs, Respondent (the college) is 
discriminating based on gender because only females take oral 
prescription contraceptives?   Let's call this the straightforward 
argument.  This was the argument to which I was responding.


The consequences of the two arguments are obviously very 
different.  For example, the straightforward argument would apply, 
but the PDA argument would not, if an employer denied coverage for 
some other type of treatment that was directed only at women, such 
as, say, post-menopausal hormone therapy.  Conversely, the PDA 
argument would apply, but the straightforward argument would not, if 
(counterfactually) there were equally-available prescription 
contraceptive pills for both men and women, and an employer denied 
coverage for both types of contraceptives.


I've already suggested why the straightforward argument 
doesn't impress me -- it penalizes Belmont Abbey for institutional 
decisions made by someone else, and it doesn't give an honest account 
of the best description of what Belmont Abbey is doing.  The PDA 
argument strikes me as stronger in principle, but I'm not sure 
(though this is far from the area of my expertise) that the text or 
policy of the PDA can support the weight of it.


Perry



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Re: EEOC says Catholic College Discriminated by Removing Contraceptive Coverage from Health Insurance

2009-08-17 Thread Perry Dane

Michael Masinter also argues that Belmont Abbey

may have difficulty demonstrating that the resolution of that claim 
in favor of plaintiffs substantially

burdens the free exercise of religion


because an


individual female employee makes the choice to purchase birth
control pills, and whether she does so with the proceeds of her
employer paid salary or her employer paid prescription drug benefits,
she is doing so with funds traceable to her employer, who does not
condition employment on refusing to use birth control or on refusing
to pay for birth control with funds that are proceeds of employment


This is essentially the old argument that money is 
fungible.  But there are two problems here.  First, law and practice 
are full of instances in which this sort of argument doesn't 
govern.  Cf. much of establishment clause doctrine.  Or consider the 
fact that my school will not reimburse me out of state funds for 
buying alcohol at business meals, but has no problem if I use part of 
my salary to buy alcohol at such meals, and even (I am told) has no 
problem reimbursing me out of gift funds.


More to the point:  Belmont Abbey clearly thinks that there 
is a religiously significant difference between directly and 
indirectly paying for contraception.  And our doctrine of religious 
liberty strongly insists that we not second-guess such judgments, as 
long as they are sincere.   Michael's argument sort of reminds me of 
someone telling an observant Jew that it must be OK to turn on an 
electric light on the Sabbath because, after all, that's not 
work.  Lots of religious beliefs and doctrines follow forms of 
logic, and make fine distinctions, that don't necessarily convince outsiders.


Perry


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Religious exemptions and undue preference for religion

2009-03-22 Thread Perry Dane
Eugene,

 I wonder if you're reading the court's footnote too 
broadly.  When the court says that granting an exception to 
Cornerstone (or perhaps all parochial schools) based on the theory 
that the free exercise claims elevate Cornerstone (or all parochial 
schools) to a higher status than secular nonpublic schools-would be 
equally unacceptable under federal law, it might simply mean that 
such an exception would be unacceptable as a requirement of free 
exercise doctrine, not that it would be unconstitutional if required 
by a legislature.

 Even if the court did mean more than that, note that what 
Cornerstone is asking for is far removed from any sort of 
paradigmatic religion-based exemption.  Whatever burden the 
government is imposing on free exercise here is quintessentially 
indirect.  Moreover, while I'm no great friend of the 
burden-benefit distinction, there surely are some free exercise 
claims, particularly when they involve alleged right to benefits 
rather than defenses against burdens, that are not only off the 
tracks on free exercise grounds but jump the tracks, so to speak, to 
the point of raising establishment clause concerns.  For example, it 
seems to me that if Mrs. Sherbert's religion not only forbade work on 
Saturdays but any work at all, and also forbade contributing to the 
unemployment insurance fund, her claim to unemployment benefits 
would, had it been accepted by the State, actually have raised the 
specter of an unconstitutional religious preference.  And I say this 
as someone who believes in a vigorous free exercise clause and 
continues to lament Smith and City of Boerne.

 Perry



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Early Massachusetts Statute

2009-03-20 Thread Perry Dane


My
educated guess is that this statute was only intended to apply to Indians
who lived in, or visited, the colonists' settlements. If so, it was
probably not much more severe (though probably less defensible) than the
restrictions the colonists placed on themselves.
I'm even
more fascinated, though, by one tidbit in the statute: the reference to
banning only outward worship. This confirms the degree
to which the Puritans had, at least in their relations with the
Indians, internalized the relatively new ideology that defended
religious coercion, not as a means to assure individual salvation, but
simply as a tool for guaranteeing social order, political cohesion,
protection of others from temptation, etc. 
Some have
argued that this focus on the state's interest in outward
worship rather than individual salvation contained, if ironically,
the seeds of modern conceptions of religious liberty. Consider, in
this connection, Elizabeth I's famous statement that she had no
desire to make windows into men's souls. For Elizabeth
herself, this statement was entirely consistent with her oppression of
the outward practice of Catholic worship. Historically,
though, it began the slow process of detaching religious commitment from
the jurisdiction of the state. (It also began the more normatively
complicated process of treating religious faith as merely
private.) I've also found really interesting here
Janet Halley, Equivocation and the Legal Conflict Over Religious
Identity In Early Modern England, 3 Yale J.L.  Human. 33 (1991),
which discusses, among other things, the Church Papists of
Elizabeth England: Catholics who complied with the law requiring
attendance at Anglican services, and understood such attendance as a
(practical or even possibly commendable) act of outward
social duty rather than a violation of their Catholic
principles.
Another
query: How would the Indians have understood the import and
implications of this statute (assuming it was actually enforced),
particularly given the fact, emphasized by historians of the period, that
very few New England Indians, at least in the 17th century, actually
converted to Christianity. (Indeed, the evidence suggests that in
the early years of the New England colonies, significantly more whites
assimilated into native culture and society, than the other way
around. That, in fact, might confirm that the statute had more to
do with controlling whites than controlling Indians.)
Doug Laycock wrote:
Just ran across a 1633
statute that made it a criminal offense for Indians to worship
their False Gods. I haven't tracked it to an original
source, but James Bradley Thayer has it in a footnote (attached), so I
assume it's reliable. 
The statute applied in any part of our jurisdiction; I don't
know if that meant all the territory claimed by Massachusetts Bay colony,
or only white towns and farms. It seems likely that practical
enforcement capacity was limited to areas of white settlement, so maybe
this is not quite as stunningly outrageous as it appeared on first
reading. Still, it's pretty remarkable. Maybe they were no
longer dependent on the Indians to feed them by this time.


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Early Massachusetts Statute

2009-03-20 Thread Perry Dane
 My educated guess is that this statute was only intended to 
apply to Indians who lived in, or visited, the colonists' 
settlements.  If so, it was probably not much more severe (though 
probably less defensible) than the restrictions the colonists placed 
on themselves.

 I'm even more fascinated, though, by one tidbit in the 
statute: the reference to banning only outward worship.  This 
confirms the degree to which the Puritans had, at least in their 
relations with the Indians, internalized the relatively new ideology 
that defended religious coercion, not as a means to assure individual 
salvation, but simply as a tool for guaranteeing social order, 
political cohesion, protection of others from temptation, etc.

 Some have argued that this focus on the state's interest in 
outward worship rather than individual salvation contained, if 
ironically, the seeds of modern conceptions of religious 
liberty.  Consider, in this connection, Elizabeth I's famous 
statement that she had no desire to make windows into men's 
souls.  For Elizabeth herself, this statement was entirely 
consistent with her oppression of the outward practice of Catholic 
worship.  Historically, though, it began the slow process of 
detaching religious commitment from the jurisdiction of the 
state.  (It also began the more normatively complicated process of 
treating religious faith as merely private.)   I've also found 
really interesting here Janet Halley, Equivocation and the Legal 
Conflict Over Religious Identity In Early Modern England, 3 Yale J.L. 
 Human. 33 (1991), which discusses, among other things, the Church 
Papists of Elizabeth England: Catholics who complied with the law 
requiring attendance at Anglican services, and understood such 
attendance as a (practical or even possibly commendable) act of 
outward social duty rather than a violation of their Catholic principles.

 Another query:  How would the Indians have understood the 
import and implications of this statute (assuming it was actually 
enforced), particularly given the fact, emphasized by historians of 
the period, that very few New England Indians, at least in the 17th 
century, actually converted to Christianity.  (Indeed, the evidence 
suggests that in the early years of the New England colonies, 
significantly more whites assimilated into native culture and 
society, than the other way around.  That, in fact, might confirm 
that the statute had more to do with controlling whites than 
controlling Indians.)

Doug Laycock wrote:
  Just ran across a 1633 statute that made it a criminal offense for 
 Indians to worship their False Gods.  I haven't tracked it to an 
 original source, but James Bradley Thayer has it in a footnote 
 (attached), so I assume it's reliable.

The statute applied in any part of our jurisdiction; I don't know 
if that meant all the territory claimed by Massachusetts Bay colony, 
or only white towns and farms.  It seems likely that practical 
enforcement capacity was limited to areas of white settlement, so 
maybe this is not quite as stunningly outrageous as it appeared on 
first reading.  Still, it's pretty remarkable.  Maybe they were no 
longer dependent on the Indians to feed them by this time.


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Religious attitudes towards self-defense, deadly and otherwise

2009-03-20 Thread Perry Dane
Eugene,

 I can't, offhand, help you with precise theological sources, 
but you might be interested in an internal debate that occurred at 
Calvin College, the very intellectually and religiously serious Dutch 
Reformed college in Michigan, when the school administration decided 
(after the Virginia Tech tragedy) to issue guns to some members of 
the college security force.  A group of students got very upset over 
the decision, claiming it was unchristian, and the administration 
produced a Theological Explanation for the Use of Force Policy.

 For some account, see, e.g.

http://www.calvin.edu/news/2007-08/use-of-force.htm

http://www.crcna.org/news.cfm?newsid=530

http://clubs.calvin.edu/chimes/article.php?id=3713

http://blog.mlive.com/grpress/2008/05/calvin_board_oks_gun_policy_fo.html

I haven't been able to find the explanation theological document that 
the college administration drafted in defense of its policy.

 Hope this helps.

 Perry


Eugene Volokh wrote:
 I'm looking for good sources that discuss religious attitudes
towards self-defense or defense of others, deadly and otherwise; in
particular, I'm looking to see whether there are religious groups that
(1) take the view that deadly force is always bad, even in self-defense
or defense of others, but nondeadly force (including pepper spray, stun
guns, and other devices that are extremely unlikely to kill) is
permissible, or (2) take the view that given the choice between
nondeadly force and deadly force, one should always use nondeadly force,
unless the nondeadly force is very likely to fail (e.g., all one has for
nondeadly force is fists vs. an attacker's knife).

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A Holy Secular Institution

2008-11-14 Thread Perry Dane


Hi all,
For anyone
interested, I've posted my upcoming Emory Law Journal article,
A Holy Secular Instituition, dealing with the intersection of
the religious and secular dimensions of marriage, with particular
reference to the same-sex marriage debate, on SSRN. To read the
abstract or download the article, go to

http://ssrn.com/abstract=1293946 The article might be of some
use, in particular, because, as I emphasize, its goal is less to score
points for one side or the other in the marriage debate than to try to
illuminate the playing field.
Take
care.



Perry

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Religious exemptions for the non-religious

2007-03-01 Thread Perry Dane


Doug
Laycock writes that the willingness to treat atheism as a religion
is very encouraging.
I agree
that, for certain purposes, including rights of _expression_, religious
views and anti-religious views need to be treated equally.

On the
other hand, it has always seemed to me that to extend the idea of
religion-based exemptions beyond the realm of specifically religious
norms conflicting with secular law would, in effect, create a universal
libertarian presumption that no law can be applied against a dissenting
individual unless that law is supported by a compelling governmental
interest. And that sort of universal libertarian presumption just
strikes me as implausible and inconsistent with our constitutional and
legal structure.
Doug is
right that some opponents of religion-based exemptions make something
like the following argument:
 1. We can't exempt only believers, because that would
discriminate against nonbelievers.
 2. But we can't exempt nonbelievers, because nonbelief is
not a religion.
 3. Therefore, we can't exempt anybody.

But I
think that we should be equally concerned about the following
argument:
 1. We can't exempt non-believers, because that would create
a universal libertarian presumption in the law, which is
implausible.
 2. But we can't exempt only believers, because that would
discriminate against nonbelievers.
 3. Therefore, we can't exempt anybody.

In both
cases, the flaw in the reasoning (which Doug agrees is a flaw) is the
notion that we can't exempt only believers. Of course
we can exempt only believers, and there are good, normatively compelling,
reasons to do so.




Perry


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Missouri declares Christianity its official religion.

2006-03-03 Thread Perry Dane

A not-very-analytic observation on a Friday afternoon:

	I happened to read these posts on the Missouri resolution at about 
the same time as I was taking a look at a remarkable document called 
the Flushing Remonstrance, written in 1657, in which the leaders 
and citizens of Town of Flushing told Governor Stuyvesant of the 
then-Dutch colony of New Amsterdam (later, of course, New York) that 
they would not cooperate with his oppressive measures against the 
Quakers.  The document is often called the first formal statement of 
religious liberty in the American colonies, and some treat it as one 
of the direct precursors to the First Amendment.  Unsurprisingly, its 
argument for religious liberty is, in large measure, a religious argument.


	It strikes me, for what it's worth, that the Missouri resolution not 
only contradicts the Constitution (whether it violates it is a more 
complicated question having to do with the status of such legislative 
expressions of opinion), it also, in the saddest possible way, 
violates the law of love, peace, and liberty referred to in the 
Flushing Remonstrance.  Moreover, with all its talk of majority 
rights, the Missouri resolution is really more a statement of 
identity politics by an angry faction than a genuine defense of 
either religious values in general or even Christianity in particular.


	I am also reminded here of Bob Cover's discussion of 
commitment.  The authors of the Flushing Remonstrance knew that 
Stuyvesant would end up arresting them, which he did.  I am not 
proposing, of course, that anyone actually test the mettle of the 
Missouri legislators by arresting them, but I wonder how many of them 
would have the courage of their convictions if that were the likely 
outcome of their little legal-literary exercise.


Perry

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The Flushing Remonstrance

2006-03-03 Thread Perry Dane

Hi all,

I forgot to include a link to the text of said Flushing Remonstrance:

http://www.nyym.org/flushing/remons.html


Perry

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Religious marriages and the state

2006-02-07 Thread Perry Dane

Hi all,

	Does anyone know of any cases, apart from People v. Greenleaf in New 
York, in which a clergyperson was prosecuted for  officiating at a 
same-sex marriage?


Thanks.

Perry

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Lemon test not applicable in prisons?

2006-02-07 Thread Perry Dane

Fascinating!

	I do think that the Lemon test is tempered in the prison context, 
but not by virtue of Turner v. Safley.  Rather, it seems to me that, 
to the extent that prisons (and, to a lesser extent, the armed 
forces) are closed off from free access to the religious element of 
civil society, the government can justifiably try, to some extent, to 
import or reproduce or sponsor a religious element into the prison, 
even if that requires more direct financial support and entanglement 
than could be justified in other contexts.  Put another way, prisons 
and similar settings present contexts in which the government might 
be justified in recognizing a positive (as in the distinction 
between positive and negative freedoms) free exercise interest that 
mitigates, at least partially, against establishment clause concerns.


	The decision that Scott quoted is problematic in two 
respects.  First, it wrongly relies on statist penological interests, 
rather than individual free exercise interests, as the counterweight 
to the establishment clause.  This could very easily lead to a very 
different set of results.  Second, the analysis in Turner is framed 
in terms of a balance (albeit one with a thumb on the scale) between 
the prison's interests and the liberty of an individual.   For 
example, one of the considerations in the Turner calculus is 
whether there are alternative means of exercising the right that 
remain open to prison inmates.  And another consideration is the 
impact accommodation of the asserted constitutional right will have 
on guards and other inmates.   If the establishment clause is 
understood, however, as protecting structural values rather than 
individual rights, then the whole Turner analysis would have to be 
substantially recast before it could make sense as a way of measuring 
whether the state impermissibly crossed a tempered wall of 
separation (forgive the mixed metaphor).


It's still fascinating, though.

Perry

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Davey--Let's Focus on Denominational Equality

2006-01-12 Thread Perry Dane
The line that Marty is drawing is perfectly sensible, and 
enforceable in a public school context.  The problem, though, is that 
religious traditions and institutions often do, and are perfectly 
entitled to, re-configure these sorts of categories according to 
their own best lights.


For example, most of the Bible and Jewish History courses, 
and many, many, other courses, taught in the Rabbinical program at 
the Jewish Theological Seminary, which ordains Conservative Rabbis, 
could easily be taught in a public university's Judaic Studies 
program.  That is largely because the Conservative movement embraces 
the academic historical-critical method in studying such 
topics.  For that matter, even the education at more traditional 
yeshivas, which is generally averse to historical-critical inquiry, 
might still be transposable to a public educational setting, in that 
it largely focuses on the internal, logical, analysis of Talmudic and 
other Jewish legal texts.  Yet, in a larger sense, both JTS and 
traditional yeshivas are clearly engaged in a devotional enterprise, 
not to mention the fact that they are training clergy.  (A further 
complication is that, in Jewish thought, learning and study are 
themselves devotional acts.)


All this is not to say either that the Washington 
restriction is incoherent or that Davey is wrong.  I'm only 
suggesting that they pose difficulties, and that those difficulties 
arise in part from the many ways that religious traditions draw their 
own lines between scholarly inquiry and devotional study.


Perry



Marty Lederman writes:
The test in Washington is whether the required courses for the major 
involve instruction aimed at inculcating religious belief in the 
doctrine of a particular religion -- or disbelief.  Are they 
devotional in nature or designed to induce religious faith or 
promote a particular religious truth?  If so, they're 
ineligible.  Or, perhaps more to the point:  Could the courses be 
taught by a *public* university in Washington?





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Drawing lines among religons

2006-01-12 Thread Perry Dane
I want to suggest a broader issue if I could, arising out of 
the Davey discussion.


It seems to me that there is an American legal instinct not 
to let theological differences among religious traditions play too 
large a role in leading to different legal results, even if those 
different results could be justified on objective, secular, 
grounds.  Or, to put it another way, our law often bases a particular 
legal rule on a paradigm case drawn from one religious traditions, 
and then tends to extend the application of that rule to other 
faiths, even if their beliefs or practices don't, strictly speaking, 
fit the original paradigm.


Some examples, important and less so:

(1) The strict clergy-penitent privilege makes the most 
sense for those religious traditions that have a strong notion of a 
specific sacrament of confession, and an absolute seal of 
confidentiality surrounding that confession.  Yet it is applied to 
all faiths.  (If the paradigm case for the privilege were rabbis, for 
example, rather than Catholic priests, it would probably be less stringent.)


(2) If we applied the broader principles of the modern law 
of charities to the status of churches, it seems fairly clear that 
many, but not all, would qualify as genuine public benefit 
institutions.  Yet the assumption is that, barring outright fraud and 
the like, all churches qualify.  (Notice the difficulty that the 
opinions in Walz had in explaining why.  Notice also that English law 
is much less sentimental in this regard:  it famously holds that 
while orders of nuns that do educational or other work in the 
community can qualify as beneficiaries of a valid charitable trust, 
orders of purely contemplative nuns cannot.)


(3) Still on the topic of the law of charities:  our 
justification for allowing a charitable deduction for contributions 
to churches is based on the paradigm of congregants putting money in 
the basket, and seems, technically speaking, not to fit easily into 
religions with compulsory tithes, pew rents, High Holiday tickets, 
etc.  Yet all these practices qualify for the deduction.  (Hernandez 
was an effort to draw some sort of line here, but its practical 
consequence has been nil.  Indeed, the IRS ended up settling with the 
Scientologists.)


(4) One of my favorite small examples:  the parsonage 
provision in the tax code, whose effect is to treat all clergy as if, 
like Catholic priests, they were required to live in church-provided rectories.



Now, it does seem to me that this instinct makes a good 
deal of sense for the American dispensation governing the relation of 
religion and the state.  But it is still difficult.  In a sense, the 
choice often comes down to whether we should (a) draw lines among 
religions, or (b) treat all religions alike, but in the process draw, 
secularly-speaking weakly-justified lines between religious and 
non-religious phenomena.  Thus, for example, the effect of the 
parsonage exemption is to give many Jewish and Protestant clergy an 
arguably arbitrary tax preference compared to non-clergy.  On the 
other hand, the effect of repealing the parsonage exemption would be 
to give Catholic clergy an objectively justifiable but still 
discomforting  tax preference compared to their Jewish and Catholic 
colleagues based on the particular ecclesiology and institutional 
set-up of their respective faiths.  This is a real dilemma, and I've 
never found a totally easy way out if it.  (I happen to think that 
there's a fair amount of intractability in this religion-and-law 
business.  But maybe that's just the post-modernist in me.)


I also think that this instinct I'm talking about exists 
below the constitutional surface (though that does not make it any 
less interesting).  But it does raise the usual constitutional 
questions:  When is drawing lines among religions forbidden?  (I.e., 
to what extent does Larson, etc., apply beyond the more blatant cases 
of religious discrimination and gerrymandering.)  When, if ever, is 
refusing to draw lines among religions forbidden?


Perry

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Unconstitutional statutory religion-based exemptions

2006-01-10 Thread Perry Dane

Marty,

Thanks.

	Thornton, however, did not involve a statutory directive to 
government to accommodate the religious needs of certain individuals, 
but rather a statutory duty imposed on one set of private parties to 
accommodate the religious needs of another set of private parties.


	And Texas Monthly was a tax case.   (There is, of course, language 
in both cases that might be relevant to the narrower issue I'm pursuing.)


	The Christian Science case is more directly on point, though, as you 
say, it involves a pretty extreme case.


	My question then, as refined, is this:  Outside of the most blatant 
denominational preferences, are there good examples of statutory 
religion-based exemptions, defined in the narrow way I have in mind, 
being struck down?


Thanks again.

Perry

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Unconstitutional statutory religion-based exemptions

2006-01-10 Thread Perry Dane

Allen,

Great.  Thanks.

Perry

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Florida voucher case

2006-01-05 Thread Perry Dane
Note that this opinion did not turn on any church-state 
issues, but rather on the court's holding that the voucher program 
fostered plural, nonuniform systems of education and thus violated 
the provision in the Florida constitution requiring the State to 
provide a uniform, efficient, safe, secure, and high quality system 
of free public schools...


This is all still very interesting, though, particularly 
since there's a decent argument that the U.S. Supreme Court's aid 
cases, particularly the earlier ones, were also in some, if only 
implicit, sense as much about defending the public school system as 
they were about drawing a line between church and state.


Those words plural and uniform also have deep resonance 
here.  Though vouchers, etc., do (maybe for the better) challenge the 
privileged status of the public school system, those of us who are 
relatively strict separationists would still tend to believe that, in 
the long run, they threaten to flatten genuine pluralism by drawing 
religious schools more tightly into the bosom of state regulatory control.


Perry






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Dover Case Questions

2005-12-22 Thread Perry Dane


Steve Jamar writes:
Maybe they teach science
differently now than when I went to school 
and when my boys (now ages 19 and 22) went to school, but science
was 
inherently taught as conditional and subject to testing and
change. 
There are things that are known facts, but there is a lot that is

still unexplained -- the true nature of light, for example, and why

gravity is such a weak force compared to the others, and a whole
host 
of things in biology and geology.
[snip]
If the point is to teach the
limits of our understanding, that can be 
and in my experience was and is taught. There are lots of
questions 
still to which the answer is we don't
know.
There is
an important difference between fallibility, contingency, and modesty
_within_ scientific inquiry and modesty _about_ the scientific
enterprise itself. All good scientists accept the
former. Many, but far from all, accept the latter. 
Some
scientists and philosophers -- folks like Richard Dawkins and Daniel
Dennett most vocally lately -- argue that the conclusions of science,
such as evolution, shred any possible basis for belief in
God. Would it be constitutional for this sort of
Dawkins/Dennett claim to be one of the propositions officially taught as
a part of a science curriculum? I assume not. Would it be
constitutional to tell students that there are no truths that are
unamentable, in principle, to scientific study and verification? I
assume not. (I'm not saying that these sorts of thing couldn't be
discussed in public school classrooms.) All that some of us
are arguing, then, is that it would be constitutional simply to advise
students that the methodological naturalism built into scientific inquiry
(and which properly excludes the teaching of intelligent design
theory as a subject _within_ science) should not be taken for an
official commitment to the ontological naturalism of folks like Dawkins
and Dennett. 



Perry

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Dover Case Questions

2005-12-22 Thread Perry Dane

Steve Jamar writes:


Maybe they teach science differently now than when I went to school
and when my boys (now ages 19 and 22) went to school, but science was
inherently taught as conditional and subject to testing and change.
There are things that are known facts, but there is a lot that is
still unexplained -- the true nature of light, for example, and why
gravity is such a weak force compared to the others, and a whole host
of things in biology and geology.


[snip]


If the point is to teach the limits of our understanding, that can be
and in my experience was and is taught.  There are lots of questions
still to which the answer is we don't know.



There is an important difference between fallibility, 
contingency, and modesty _within_ scientific inquiry and  modesty 
_about_ the scientific enterprise itself.   All good scientists 
accept the former.  Many, but far from all, accept the latter.


Some scientists and philosophers -- folks like Richard 
Dawkins and Daniel Dennett most vocally lately -- argue that the 
conclusions of science, such as evolution, shred any possible basis 
for belief in God.   Would it be constitutional for this sort of 
Dawkins/Dennett claim to be one of the propositions officially taught 
as a part of a science curriculum?  I assume not.  Would it be 
constitutional to tell students that there are no truths that are 
unamentable, in principle, to scientific study and verification?  I 
assume not.  (I'm not saying that these sorts of thing couldn't be 
discussed in public school classrooms.)   All that some of us are 
arguing, then, is that it would be constitutional simply to advise 
students that the methodological naturalism built into scientific 
inquiry (and which properly excludes the teaching of intelligent 
design theory as a subject _within_ science) should not be taken for 
an official commitment to the ontological naturalism of folks like 
Dawkins and Dennett.


Perry


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Dover Case Questions

2005-12-21 Thread Perry Dane

Ed Darrell writes:

No, urethra design is not beside the point at all.  Is there an 
intelligent design explanation for that design?  There is an 
evolutionary explanation (though not wholly satisfactory to 
many).  How could such a thing have happened, according to 
intelligent design theory?


  The absence of any possible answer to that question points to the 
lack of science behind ID.  That is the whole issue.



I agree that ID is not a scientific theory.  I also believe 
that the Dover decision was correct.


That said, though, one needs to be fair here.  The claim of 
intelligent design theory is not that NO features of the biological 
world can be explained by evolution through natural selection.  Nor 
is it, as I said before, that the biological world is, according to 
one or another criterion, well-designed.  It is, rather, that there 
are certain features of the biological world (irreducible complexity 
and all that) that point to at least those features having been 
designed by an intelligence.


It is therefore consistent with at least the bare bones of 
ID theory that the designer was evil, or a practical joker, or a 
child-god who designed us as part of the heavenly equivalent of a 
kindergarten art project.


Perry




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Dover Case Questions

2005-12-21 Thread Perry Dane

Ed Brayton writes:



Actually, this depends on which ID advocate you're talking to at the
time and that fact points up the lack of a coherent ID model.



This is fair enough, in a sense.  Yes, to be sure, there are 
different versions of ID, just as there are different versions of 
most schools of thought.  But the fact that a theory has different 
versions that do not cohere with each other does not mean that the 
theory, as a general approach, is not coherent.


It's also worth adding that, outside the range of what is 
usually labeled as ID theory, are a whole set of other views, which 
are self-consciously religious/theological or meta-empirical rather 
than faux scientific, that posit that an intelligent God in some 
sense guides or stands behind or sustains or pushes or pulls or is 
otherwise involved in the process that science, within its own 
perfectly appropriate naturalistic methodological limitations, 
describes to us as evolution through random mutation and natural selection.


Perry




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Dover Case Questions

2005-12-21 Thread Perry Dane


Brad writes:
Perry wrote on 12/21/2005
01:54:14 PM:

 It is
therefore consistent with at least the bare bones of 
 ID theory that the designer was evil, or a practical joker, or a 
 child-god who designed us as part of the heavenly equivalent of
a 
 kindergarten art project.

Or that an omniscient God who knows more than we do had a reason for 
creating us this way that is no more apparent to us than it is apparent
to 
a 3 year old why he can't play with a lit candle.

Yes.

And that
is part of what makes Intelligent Design Theory so theologically and
religiously unsatisfactory: For the sake of trying to play in the
arena of science, an effort at which it fails, much of the ID movement
invokes a designer who is simply an abstract placeholder rather than the
One Who Loves, and who evokes love and worship from his or her
creation.
There is a
deeper point lurking here about the very strange terms on which the
contemporary culture wars are being fought. But I'll let that
pass.



Perry


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Dover Case Questions

2005-12-21 Thread Perry Dane

Brad writes:



Perry wrote on 12/21/2005 01:54:14 PM:

  It is therefore consistent with at least the bare bones of
 ID theory that the designer was evil, or a practical joker, or a
 child-god who designed us as part of the heavenly equivalent of a
 kindergarten art project.

Or that an omniscient God who knows more than we do had a reason for
creating us this way that is no more apparent to us than it is apparent to
a 3 year old why he can't play with a lit candle.



Yes.

And that is part of what makes Intelligent Design Theory so 
theologically and religiously unsatisfactory:  For the sake of trying 
to play in the arena of science, an effort at which it fails, much of 
the ID movement invokes a designer who is simply an abstract 
placeholder rather than the One Who Loves, and who evokes love and 
worship from his or her creation.


There is a deeper point lurking here about the very strange 
terms on which the contemporary culture wars are being fought.  But 
I'll let that pass.


Perry



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Dover Case

2005-12-21 Thread Perry Dane
For what it's worth, there is a good argument for limiting 
the term Doctor to physicians (including, by the way, physicians 
without a doctorate such as British physicians with only an 
undergraduate medical degree), and referring to all non-physician 
Ph.D.'s as Mr. or Professor or the like.  This is, for example, the 
traditional practice at Yale.  In fact, there's a certain nice 
reverse snobbery to this usage.


That said, all I can add is the following entirely facetious 
observation:  Here we are contemplating whether a particular 
phenomenon (the use of the terms Dr. and Prof.) is (a) essentially 
random, (b) the mechanical product of underlying variables such as 
the self-description of the witnesses, the practice of the attorneys, 
etc., (c) an unconscious tic, or (d) dare I say it, the result of the 
judge's intelligent design. Escher would be proud.


Perry


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Dover Case Questions

2005-12-21 Thread Perry Dane

Alan Brownstein writes:


So - suppose someone drafted a statement disclaiming scientific
overreaching as in

1.  In the absence of some external force which is not bound by the
laws of science, the evidence that we CAN test tells us that evolution
is what happened.  If there was a supernatural actor in the process,
however, then all bets are off because science cannot test the
supernatural.

And then added to it a statement building on Mark's comment - that

2.  In its current form, or state of development, ID does not
provide a framework for identifying testable hypothesis - and as such
can not be recognized as science.

Is that a statement list members think school boards can
constitutionally, and should, as a matter of policy, endorse?


I do think that it might be salutary and just plain correct 
to append to all science classes (and for that matter social science 
classes that proceed from a presumption of methodological naturalism) 
the sort of disclaimer I suggested earlier.  But I worry that 
attaching such a disclaimer specifically to the teaching of evolution 
improperly privileges one particular religious point of view over others.


The trick is to attend to the legitimate concern that 
science education would inadvertently promote an ideology of 
scientism, while also avoiding the official promotion of religion.


Perry


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Hmmm, Atheist Law Center, Eh?

2005-12-13 Thread Perry Dane

Hi,

In one sense, John Lofton's notion of operational atheism 
has much more to it than meets the eye.  Consider, for example, the 
views of Radical Orthodox Christian theologians (e.g., John 
Milbank) and some other important post-liberal contemporary 
Christian thinkers (e.g., Stanley Hauerwas) who tend to take the view 
that much of modernity, including the underpinnings of our social 
science, the basis of our economic system, and the assumptions of our 
political theory, are profoundly at odds with the world-view of the 
Bible.  If you're looking for an uncompromising, 
religiously-inspired, critique of the operational assumptions of 
our government and society, this is it.


Significantly, though, these thinkers are _not_ sympathetic 
to the so-called religious right.  To the contrary, they tend to 
find much of the religious right agenda to be either beside the 
point or perniciously Constantinian. Moreover, to the extent that 
they have public policy views (though they dislike the term), they 
tend to focus on issues such as justice for the poor (and skepticism 
about capitalism) or, in Hauerwas's case, an uncompromising 
opposition to war.


So, at the end of the day, Ed Brayton is also profoundly 
right to point out that staunch religious believers can end up taking 
what might, in crude shorthand, be called the ACLU position on many 
of the issues that divide us, while proud atheists (including many 
neoconservatives) can easily take what might loosely be called the 
anti-ACLU position.


The interesting question, though, is why this is, at least 
in popular discourse, so little noticed and appreciated.


Perry




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The institution of marriage

2005-11-13 Thread Perry Dane

Alan Brownstein writes:


In order to answer Mark's question, we have to decide whether there is a
constitutional dimension to the cultural capital associated with
marriage (accepting Perry's analysis for the moment). Let me pose a
hypothetical question. Are religious individuals entitled to a vote on
the question of what constitutes a religion for cultural capital
purposes? A group calls itself a religion. Members of other faiths are
willing extend to them the same statutory accommodations available to
other faiths, but balk at the law referring to this group's beliefs as a
religion.


This is an interesting hypothetical, but not entirely apposite, it 
seems to me, for at least two reasons.


First, marriage differs from religion, in that  (1) it is an 
institution, and not only a word, (2) there is a long and complicated 
history, going back at least a thousand years, of both contestation and 
intertwining between the religious/spiritual and civil/secular 
aspects/identities of marriage, and (3) perhaps most important, while we 
might imagine a world in which the various meanings of marriage could be 
kept hermetically sealed off from each other, that is not our world, at 
least right now.  Indeed, the civil state has been as insistent as many 
religious folk are on refusing to erect a wall between religious and 
civil marriage.  (In many states, for example, it is simply not possible 
for a heterosexual, otherwise qualified, couple even to try to enter into a 
merely religious wedding: chances are that the wedding will be given 
civil effect, regardless of the lack of a marriage license.  And, at least 
in Utah, a merely religious marriage can subject one to a bigamy 
prosecution.)  In this sense, marriage is radically different from words 
such as religion,  and, for that matter, from other cultural institutions 
such as, say, the definition of adulthood.  As I point out in my Oxford 
article, we do manage, without any difficulty, to wall off the secular 
legal idea that the age is majority is 18 from, for example, the Jewish 
idea that a boy becomes a bar mtizvah at age 13 and a girl becomes a bat 
mitzvah at age 12.  But marriage, for all sorts of reasons, is just different.


Second, it's worth emphasizing that something like my argument 
about religious capital can have a constitutional dimension without 
necessarily implying a hard constitutional entitlement.(Oddly enough, 
if there is anything like an entitlement argument here, it might well be 
on the other side of the equation,  in favor of recognizing a  right to 
full-fledged same-sex marriage, in that, for certain religious traditions 
(primarily Protestant, as opposed to Catholic or Jewish or Hindu, etc.), it 
is theologically difficult to conceive of a genuine rather than 
metaphorical religious marriage apart from an underlying civil institution.)


Perry




***
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The institution of marriage

2005-11-08 Thread Perry Dane

Ed Brayton  wrote:

I fail to see how the institution of
marriage can be destroyed without having any actual marriage damaged in any
conceivable way. It's not going to do anything to any marriage that I'm
aware of. No one I know is going to leave their spouse if gay marriage is
legalized, or stop loving their kids, or choose not to get married. If
anyone's marriage is fragile enough that it can damaged by the prospect of
people they don't know being allowed to get married, there wasn't any hope
for that marriage in the first place. And without destroying any particular
marriage, how is the institution of marriage to be destroyed? I've never
seen a logical causal argument made here to support this kind of rhetoric; I
suspect I never will.


I don't oppose same-sex marriage.  But I do understand the 
argument that same-sex marriage would threaten the institution of 
marriage, particularly as that institution is understood in many (though, 
of course, not all) religious traditions.  The issue is not whether any 
given marriage will be damaged, but rather whether the cultural meaning of 
the institution -- the set of purposes, expectations, and even cosmic 
meanings -- that are ascribed to it will shift in a way that will 
unavoidably spill over beyond the merely secular realm to religious 
communities as well.  I think it's useful to think of the institution of 
marriage as being, at least in part, a piece of cultural capital in whose 
meaning various communities invest, and whose value as a bearer of meaning 
risks being appropriated, so to speak, when the state radically changes 
the rules.


Consider two analogies:  (1) Why do many American Indians object 
to the use of Indian names and mascots by sports teams, even when the names 
and mascots are not inherently offensive or insulting?  One reason is that 
the appropriation of names and symbols such as Braves inevitably alters 
and dilutes the meaning of such names and symbols among Native Americans 
themselves.  (2) Or consider the pyrrhic victory argument in 
Establishment Clause debates; that is to say, the argument (which I tend to 
support in lots of contexts) that governmental sponsorship of religious 
symbols such as creches or religious practices such as prayers threatens to 
debase and trivialize the genuine religious meaning of those symbols or 
practices.  That is to say, creches and prayers, as pieces of religious 
capital and bearers of meaning, are altered, even in their private use, by 
their public misuse.


Now, of course, to understand the argument that same-sex marriage 
would threaten the institution of marriage as it is understood in many 
religious traditions is not to support that argument.   If nothing else, 
filling in that argument would require a really detailed and careful 
account of the complicated relationship between marriage as a piece of 
religious capital and marriage as a civil institution.  In any event, I 
don't think that religious objectors to same-sex marriage are entitled to 
any sort of veto in the contest over the meaning of marriage.   But we 
should at least be willing to acknowledge that there is something genuine 
at issue here.


Perry



***
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Rutgers University
School of Law  -- Camden
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Camden, NJ 08102

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Work:   (856) 225-6004
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The institution of marriage

2005-11-08 Thread Perry Dane

Mark Scarberry writes:


I appreciate Perry's thoughtful comments. Near the end he says, I
don't think that religious objectors to same-sex marriage are entitled to
any sort of veto in the contest over the meaning of marriage. If they
aren't entitled to a veto, are they nevertheless (anagrammatically speaking)
entitled to a vote?

To put it another way, if their interests are legitimate, are they entitled
to put those interests forward and see whether the democratic process
results in protection of those interests?


For what it's worth, I do think that religious folk are legitimate 
stakeholders in the debate over same-sex marriage.  That gives them both a 
vote and a voice.


On the other hand, I don't think that this necessarily means that 
only the democratic process should resolve this debate.  Sometimes the 
Constitution overrides even legitimate voices.  (Do I think there's a 
constitutional right to same-sex marriage?  I'm still struggling with that 
question.  But I certainly don't think that the question is out of bounds, 
or that courts that decide in favor of such a right are crossing some 
fundamental red line.)


On the third hand (there's usually a third hand), I also think 
that the legitimate religious stake in the definition of marriage renders 
both coherent (see my essay, The Intersecting Worlds of Religious and 
Secular Marriage, in Law and Religion: Current Legal Issues, Vol. 4, at 385 
(Richard O'Dair  Andrew Lewis, eds., Oxford University Press 2001)) and 
normatively very tempting a compromise solution such as Vermont-style 
(i.e., including all the secular legal incidents of marriage) civil unions.


Perry




***
Perry Dane
Professor of Law

Rutgers University
School of Law  -- Camden
217 North Fifth Street
Camden, NJ 08102

[EMAIL PROTECTED]
www.camlaw.rutgers.edu/bio/925/

Work:   (856) 225-6004
Fax:   (856) 969-7924
Home:   (610) 896-5702
***


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