Re: Town of Greece and coercion

2014-07-07 Thread mallamud
I always thought that when the judges enter the court one stands out of 
respect for the judges/court, and then sits down when the judges sit.

 Jon

On 2014-07-07 17:05, Marty Lederman wrote:

Thats a different point, I think.  I assume youd agree that youd
remain standing not only because you think its the right thing to do
(out of respect for the institution), but also because there would be
a steep price to pay if you were to sit down.  So there certainly _is
_substantial coercion.

Now, I agree with you -- its not coercion _to pray_, or even to feign
praying.  But for some people, it would be coercion to do something
their religion forbids or strongly discourages -- namely, to act as
though you are a willing part of the assemblage in whose name a god 
is

being invoked, without objecting when Jesus is described as "our"
savior who has "restored" "our" lives.  When I am in someone elses
church, of course I do not find it objectionable to stand
respectfully.  But when standing in the Court or city council of our
own government? 

On Mon, Jul 7, 2014 at 4:49 PM, Volokh, Eugene  wrote:


   I do not view standing in respectful
silence as participation in a religious ceremony (for much the same
reasons Justice Scalia gave in _Lee v. Weisman_).  I view it as an
acknowledgment of respect for the institution and its practices, not
as agreement or participation.  In this respect standing during the
invocation would be similar to standing when the court enters –
or, perhaps more on point, the custom (as I understand it) that
citizens of one country should stand while a foreign country’s
national anthem is being played, but not sing it:  They owe the
foreign country no allegiance, and thus need not express such
allegiance, but they do owe respect to the occasion of the foreign
country’s national anthem being played.

 

   I would not echo the invocation,
though, just as I don’t say the words “under God” when the
Pledge of Allegiance is being said.  And, as I mentioned before, if
I were a yarmulke-wearing Jew (which I’m not), I wouldn’t feel
much concern about wearing religious garb before a court that is
composed entirely of Christians (not the U.S. Supreme Court today,
of course), even when by doing so I am constantly conveying the
message, “I am not a Christian.”

 

   Eugene

 

FROM: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [16]
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [17]] ON BEHALF OF Marty
Lederman
SENT: Monday, July 07, 2014 1:41 PM

TO: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
SUBJECT: Town of Greece and coercion

 

Eugene:  if you were at counsel table in the Supreme Court, waiting
to argue a case, and were uncomfortable (for religious reasons)
standing in respectful silence while Pamela Talkin intoned "God save
the United States and this Honorable Court," would you dare stay
seated, even though theres no historical evidence that the Justices
would hold it against you or your client?

In case your answer would depend on the idea that no one ought to be
uncomfortable standing while the Marshal asks for Gods salvation on
our behalf in, imagine the hypo were changed slightly to fit more
closely the situation in the time-honored way, then lets change the
hypo slightly, to bring it more in line with what occurs in the Town
of Greece, e.g., the Marshal decreeing:

"In the name of Jesus Christ, our savior, please save the U.S. and
this Honorable Court," or

"We acknowledge the saving sacrifice of Jesus Christ on the cross.
We draw strength, vitality, and confidence from his resurrection. 
Jesus Christ, who took away the sins of the world, destroyed our
death, through his dying and in his rising, he has restored our
life. Blessed are you, who has raised up the Lord Jesus, you who
will raise us, in our turn, and put us by His side. Please save the
United State and this Honorable Court."

Would you sit down?  I doubt I would, if I were just about to
petition the Court.

I dont mean to suggest that the Supreme Court hypo settles the
Greece case.  I use it only to demonstrate what appears to me to be
an uncontroversial point, which is that non-Christians in Greece are
obviously coerced to, at a minimum, stand in respectful silence
while someone prays on their collective behalf to a God that they do
not believe in.

 

14, at 2:50 PM, Alan Brownstein 
wrote:


I appreciate your prompt response, Eugene. Part of our
disagreement clearly relates to our understanding of social
reality and I don’t know that there is much that can be usefully
discussed in that regard.  The passage you quote and other
language in the majority’s opinion describe a world that is so
different from the one I experience that it is hard for me to
see  how this chasm can be crossed.

 

With regard to your argument that citizens may feel worried about
alienating board members or any government official who exercises
discretionary power over them in all kinds of pr

Re: On a different strand of the seamless web

2014-07-07 Thread mallamud
recognizing that the corporate entity itself has dignitary rights.

Alan

-Original Message-
From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [1]
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [2]] On Behalf Of
mallamud
Sent: Monday, July 07, 2014 11:23 AM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: On a different strand of the seamless web

Lots of advocacy groups are organized as corporations.  It is a
very common means of collecting money and engaging is supporting
good causes.
The fact that it is a corporation should not undermine the idea
that a lot of well-meaning people have banded together to do
something good.  I do not see that it diminishes their sense of
doing good things because we use the fiction that the corporation is
doing them.

Similarly, though I disagree with the decision in Hobby Lobby for
many reasons that have been stated on this list, it is not because
Alito uses the fiction of the corporation to uphold what the Court
decides are the rights of the Greens and the Hahns.  To me, to
suggest that the decision gives corporations dignitary rights, which
admittedly they do not have gets off the point.  To me a big
obstacle to tolerance arises when we think of rights as dignitary
rights so that the failure to recognize becomes tantamount to
failing to respect someones personhood.
Tolerance will be scarce if we all start to think that the presence
of a religious symbol that is not ours diminishes our dignity, and
so I think we should stay well clear of the concept of "dignitary
rights."

                                      Jon

On 2014-07-07 12:55, Alan Brownstein wrote:
> I agree with most of what Marty says here. Commercial
corporations do
> not have dignitary rights such as the right to exercise religion.
> Human persons have these rights and one can argue as Alito often
but
> not always does that they should not be held to have waived those
> rights because they elect to do business in a corporate form.
> Alito’s opinion is strongest when he focuses on real people.
>
> But the majority also holds that commercial corporations are
persons
> for RFRA purposes. I do not think it was necessary to reach that
> conclusion to protect the Greens and Hahns in this case. Alito
> suggests that this idea of corporate personhood is a fiction, but
it
> is more than that. It is a caricature of human dignity to
describe a
> commercial corporation as having religious exercise rights. I
think
> that is part of what is provoking some of the criticisms directed
at
> Alito’s opinion.
>
> Moreover, by holding that corporations are persons for RFRA
purposes,
> Alito makes it much easier to argue that publicly traded
corporations
> are persons for RFRA purposes as well as closely held
corporations.
>
> Finally, the issue of commercial corporate dignitary rights
arises in
> other contexts involving other rights. I think, for example, as
did
> Chief Justice Rehnquist, that it is absurd to suggest that
commercial
> corporations have dignitary rights that are offended if they are
> compelled as corporate entities to speak – or to be connected
in some
> modest way with some government mandated message. By talking
about
> commercial corporate religious exercise rights in Hobby Lobby,
the
> Court arguably reinforces the idea of corporate dignitary rights
in
> other circumstances.
>
> Alan
>
> FROM: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [3]
> [mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [4]] ON BEHALF OF
Marty
> Lederman
>  SENT: Monday, July 07, 2014 8:14 AM
>  TO: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
>  SUBJECT: Re: On a different strand of the seamless web
>
> On this point, I think we may have at least some degree of
consensus:
> The issue is not corporate v. noncorporate, or for-profit v.
> nonprofit; it is, instead -- and has been ever since Prince, a
case
> involving individuals acting in the commercial sector for
religious,
> nonprofit reasons -- whether and under what circumstances
exemptions
> should be afforded in the commercial setting.
>
>  Also, as I have been blogging since the outset of the case, the
issue
> is not the religious exercise of the commercial enterprise -- its
> absurd to say that any religion imposes obligations on Hobby
Lobby,
> Inc. -- but instead the religious exercise of those who make
decisions
> on its behalf. I think the Alito opinion is best understood to
confirm
> this conclusion. To be sure, at a couple of points he refers to
> permitting the RFRA suit to be brought by Hobby Lobby itself. But
> theres no doubt that its the Greens and the Hahns, in their
capacity
> as corporate directors, whose religious exercise is at issue:
>
>  -- "Congress did not discriminate in this way AGAINST MEN AND
WOMEN
> WHO WISH TO RUN THEIR BUSINESSES as for-profit corporations in
the
> mann

RE: On a different strand of the seamless web

2014-07-07 Thread mallamud
Lots of advocacy groups are organized as corporations.  It is a very 
common means of collecting money and engaging is supporting good causes. 
The fact that it is a corporation should not undermine the idea that a 
lot of well-meaning people have banded together to do something good.  I 
do not see that it diminishes their sense of doing good things because 
we use the fiction that the corporation is doing them.


Similarly, though I disagree with the decision in Hobby Lobby for many 
reasons that have been stated on this list, it is not because Alito uses 
the fiction of the corporation to uphold what the Court decides are the 
rights of the Greens and the Hahns.  To me, to suggest that the decision 
gives corporations dignitary rights, which admittedly they do not have 
gets off the point.  To me a big obstacle to tolerance arises when we 
think of rights as dignitary rights so that the failure to recognize 
becomes tantamount to failing to respect someone's personhood.  
Tolerance will be scarce if we all start to think that the presence of a 
religious symbol that is not ours diminishes our dignity, and so I think 
we should stay well clear of the concept of "dignitary rights."


 Jon

On 2014-07-07 12:55, Alan Brownstein wrote:

I agree with most of what Marty says here. Commercial corporations do
not have dignitary rights such as the right to exercise religion.
Human persons have these rights and one can argue as Alito often but
not always does that they should not be held to have waived those
rights because they elect to do business in a corporate form.
Alito’s opinion is strongest when he focuses on real people.

But the majority also holds that commercial corporations are persons
for RFRA purposes. I do not think it was necessary to reach that
conclusion to protect the Greens and Hahns in this case. Alito
suggests that this idea of corporate personhood is a fiction, but it
is more than that. It is a caricature of human dignity to describe a
commercial corporation as having religious exercise rights. I think
that is part of what is provoking some of the criticisms directed at
Alito’s opinion.

Moreover, by holding that corporations are persons for RFRA purposes,
Alito makes it much easier to argue that publicly traded corporations
are persons for RFRA purposes as well as closely held corporations.

Finally, the issue of commercial corporate dignitary rights arises in
other contexts involving other rights. I think, for example, as did
Chief Justice Rehnquist, that it is absurd to suggest that commercial
corporations have dignitary rights that are offended if they are
compelled as corporate entities to speak – or to be connected in
some modest way with some government mandated message. By talking
about commercial corporate religious exercise rights in Hobby Lobby,
the Court arguably reinforces the idea of corporate dignitary rights
in other circumstances.

Alan

FROM: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] ON BEHALF OF Marty
Lederman
 SENT: Monday, July 07, 2014 8:14 AM
 TO: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
 SUBJECT: Re: On a different strand of the seamless web

On this point, I think we may have at least some degree of consensus:
The issue is not corporate v. noncorporate, or for-profit v.
nonprofit; it is, instead -- and has been ever since Prince, a case
involving individuals acting in the commercial sector for religious,
nonprofit reasons -- whether and under what circumstances exemptions
should be afforded in the commercial setting.

 Also, as I have been blogging since the outset of the case, the 
issue

is not the religious exercise of the commercial enterprise -- it's
absurd to say that any religion imposes obligations on Hobby Lobby,
Inc. -- but instead the religious exercise of those who make 
decisions
on its behalf. I think the Alito opinion is best understood to 
confirm

this conclusion. To be sure, at a couple of points he refers to
permitting the RFRA suit to be brought by Hobby Lobby itself. But
there's no doubt that it's the Greens and the Hahns, in their 
capacity

as corporate directors, whose religious exercise is at issue:

 -- "Congress did not discriminate in this way AGAINST MEN AND WOMEN
WHO WISH TO RUN THEIR BUSINESSES as for-profit corporations in the
manner required by their religious beliefs."

 -- "Congress provided protection for PEOPLE LIKE THE HAHNS AND
GREENS"

 -- "the HAHNS AND GREENS have a sincere religious belief that life
begins at conception. They therefore object on religious grounds to
providing health insurance that covers methods of birth control . . .
."

Ultimately, the Court holds that "protecting the free-exercise rights
of corporations like Hobby Lobby, Conestoga, and Mardel protects the
religious liberty of the humans who own and control those companies."
I think this formulation doesn't make sense conceptually -- the
corporations don't exercise religion. Therefore 

RE: Hobby Lobby Question

2014-07-07 Thread mallamud
ight, but why would a clearly constitutional single
payer system elicit such disobedience (and arguments about 
complicity)
but the funding of deeply immoral wars and complicity with a number 
of
terrible regimes do not? This is meant as a serious question. 
Abortion
has become like the Stamp Tax, a perfectly reasonable effort by the 
UK

to recover from the costs of the Seven Years War, but (we now know)
the trigger for the American Revolution. Or is the better analogy to
slavery, where compromise was ultimately impossible (for better or
worse)?

Sandy

Sent from my iPhone

On Jul 6, 2014, at 4:14 PM, "Scarberry, Mark"
 wrote:


And then we would have massive resistance that would make our
largely voluntary tax system unworkable and create civil division at
extreme levels.

Think, as mentioned at AALS, "peasants" with pitchforks.

Mark

Mark S. Scarberry

Pepperdine University School of Law

Sent from my Verizon Wireless 4G LTE Smartphone

 Original message 

From: "Levinson, Sanford V"

Date:07/06/2014 11:13 AM (GMT-08:00)

To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics

Subject: Re: Hobby Lobby Question

I suppose that Jon's is the 64 billion dollar question. I think the
answer would depend on the degree to which the single payer system
was exclusive. If one could still purchase supplemental coverage
(for heart transplants, say), then I assume the US could treat
abortion as special. But if single-payer really did in all private
insurance, then I assume that abortion would have to be covered.

Sandy

Sent from my iPhone


On Jul 6, 2014, at 1:32 PM, "mallamud"

 wrote:


Why wouldn't the Congress ban coverage of abortions under a

single-payer system?

Jon


On 2014-07-01 22:22, Levinson, Sanford V wrote:
I do not understand why the complicity with evil rationale

doesn't

apply to taxpayers ( like Thoreau). The argument against is

either

that it would unduly burden the state to set up a c.o. system for

tax

protesters or that it would invite strategic misrepresentation.

Are

these sufficiently "compelling interests" to overcome undoubtedly
sincere (and correct) beliefs that one's taxes are supporting
oppression at home and around the world (as well as a lot of good
things). As Uwe Reindhart points out, the craziest American
exceptionalism is that workers are dependent on their employers

for

medical insurance. Hobby Lobby is another good argument for
tax-financed single-payer coverage.

Sandy

Sent from my iPhone

On Jun 30, 2014, at 11:48 PM, "Steven Jamar"


[13]> wrote:


The court accepts without inquiry the assertion that the

complicity

with evil theory is the problem that leads to the substantial
burden. It merely accepts the claim that the adherents cannot

comply

because of the complicity theory. It then bootstraps that there
would be costs of non-compliance.
At the core the court buys the argument that an attenuated
complicity can be the basis of a substantial burden.

Sent from Steve's iPhone

On Jul 1, 2014, at 12:20 AM, Arthur Spitzer


[10]> wrote:


I'm puzzled by Steve Jamar's statement that yesterday's

decision

"arguably requires all courts to simply accept the religious
adherent's claim that the burden is substantial." The majority
analyzed whether the burden was substantial and found it was
because the ACA would impose millions of dollars of financial
penalties on the plaintiffs if they did not comply. Slip op. at
32. I don't think the Court tells us whether a $100 fine would
have been a substantial burden. I'm curious what in the opinion
Steve points to in support of the proposition that courts may

not

evaluate the substantiality of a burden, especially considering
that the Court did evaluate that question, as an empirical

matter,

in this case.

Art Spitzer

WARNING: this message is subject to monitoring by the NSA.

On Mon, Jun 30, 2014 at 11:17 PM, Steven Jamar
 wrote:


Brown eliminated the constitutional doctrine of separate but
equal -- in the Brown decision just for education, but it was
applied to all racial classifications. The 1964 Civil Rights

Act

accomplished much more, of course, but the Brown decision
matters a lot.

So it is with numerous decisions. Hobby Lobby's acceptance of
the complicity with evil theory in this attenuated context and
its ruling that arguably requires all courts to simply accept
the religious adherent's claim that the burden is substantial,
could dramatically change the landscape of RFRA interpretation
federally and by example at the state level. These underlying
principles could also be restricted by later decisions or
expanded. It is a very troubling expansion of RFRA beyond what
was intended originally. But that is hardly unique to this bit
of legislation.

I think it is a very bad decision, but not even in the top

ten.


--
Prof. Steven D. Jamar vox: 202-806-8017 [1]
Director of Inte

Re: Hobby Lobby Question

2014-07-06 Thread mallamud
Why wouldn't the Congress ban coverage of abortions under a 
single-payer system?

   Jon

On 2014-07-01 22:22, Levinson, Sanford V wrote:

I do not understand why the complicity with evil rationale doesn't
apply to taxpayers ( like Thoreau). The argument against is either
that it would unduly burden the state to set up a c.o. system for tax
protesters or that it would invite strategic misrepresentation. Are
these sufficiently "compelling interests" to overcome undoubtedly
sincere (and correct) beliefs that one's taxes are supporting
oppression at home and around the world (as well as a lot of good
things). As Uwe Reindhart points out, the craziest American
exceptionalism is that workers are dependent on their employers for
medical insurance. Hobby Lobby is another good argument for
tax-financed single-payer coverage.

Sandy

 Sent from my iPhone

 On Jun 30, 2014, at 11:48 PM, "Steven Jamar"  wrote:


The court accepts without inquiry the assertion that the complicity
with evil theory is the problem that leads to the substantial
burden. It merely accepts the claim that the adherents cannot comply
because of the complicity theory. It then bootstraps that there
would be costs of non-compliance.
At the core the court buys the argument that an attenuated
complicity can be the basis of a substantial burden.

Sent from Steve's iPhone

On Jul 1, 2014, at 12:20 AM, Arthur Spitzer  wrote:


I'm puzzled by Steve Jamar's statement that yesterday's decision
"arguably requires all courts to simply accept the religious
adherent's claim that the burden is substantial." The majority
analyzed whether the burden was substantial and found it was
because the ACA would impose millions of dollars of financial
penalties on the plaintiffs if they did not comply. Slip op. at
32. I don't think the Court tells us whether a $100 fine would
have been a substantial burden. I'm curious what in the opinion
Steve points to in support of the proposition that courts may not
evaluate the substantiality of a burden, especially considering
that the Court did evaluate that question, as an empirical matter,
in this case.

Art Spitzer

WARNING: this message is subject to monitoring by the NSA.

On Mon, Jun 30, 2014 at 11:17 PM, Steven Jamar
 wrote:


Brown eliminated the constitutional doctrine of separate but
equal -- in the Brown decision just for education, but it was
applied to all racial classifications. The 1964 Civil Rights Act
accomplished much more, of course, but the Brown decision
matters a lot.

So it is with numerous decisions. Hobby Lobby's acceptance of
the complicity with evil theory in this attenuated context and
its ruling that arguably requires all courts to simply accept
the religious adherent's claim that the burden is substantial,
could dramatically change the landscape of RFRA interpretation
federally and by example at the state level. These underlying
principles could also be restricted by later decisions or
expanded. It is a very troubling expansion of RFRA beyond what
was intended originally. But that is hardly unique to this bit
of legislation.

I think it is a very bad decision, but not even in the top ten.

--
Prof. Steven D. Jamar vox: 202-806-8017 [1]
Director of International Programs, Institute for Intellectual
Property and Social Justice http://iipsj.org [2]
Howard University School of Law fax: 202-806-8567 [3]
http://sdjlaw.org [4]

"For all men of good will May 17, 1954, came as a joyous
daybreak to end the long night of enforced segregation. . . . It
served to transform the fatigue of despair into the buoyancy of
hope."

Martin Luther King, Jr., in 1960 on Brown v. Board of Education

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Re: The "less restrictive means" analysis and political feasibility

2014-07-06 Thread mallamud

Eugene,

I'm a bit late with this, so I am just replying to you (although I 
do not mind your posting it if you think its still relvant).


Where there are less restrictive alternatives, the law is that the 
government should use them. If they cannot as a political matter, then I 
do not think that the government interest is truly compelling.  The 
Court's job: to determine if the least restrictive means were used.  If 
the government does not want to use, or the legislature will not 
authorize, the least restrictive means, it does not change the fact that 
the least restrictive means were not used.


 Jon


On 2014-07-01 17:42, Volokh, Eugene wrote:

It seems to me that there are likely to be many situations in which a
court holds that a law isn’t the “least restrictive means,” but
the political coalition backing the law has lost power – whether in
the recent past, or just because the law is a very old one – and
therefore any less restrictive means would be politically
infeasible.  I hadn’t thought that this would be an argument
against striking down the law.

To give an example, in _Sable Communications v. FCC_ the Court struck
down a total ban on dial-a-porn, which was ostensibly aimed at
protecting children, because there were less restrictive means
available (in the form of credit card screening and the like). 
Let’s say, though, that between the enactment of the law and the
decision control of one house of Congress had changed, and the party
now in control of that house had no desire to restrict porn any
more.  (This is a counterfactual, but imagine this happening at the
state level, in a state where one party might indeed take a “who
cares about porn?” view.)  Sandy, do you think that the Court
should in that situation say, “Well, we realize that any less
restrictive means would be politically infeasible, so we’ll uphold
the law because there aren’t any politically feasible less
restrictive means”?  Or is there some important distinction here?

Eugene

Sandy Levinson writes:

AS I read the opinion it tends to rely on the fact that the insurance
providers will be required to provide the coverage “for free”
(given that it will overall cost less to cover than would
pregnancies), so that the government must allocate not a single new
penny. If, on the other hand, a new appropriation, even of a penny,
would be necessary, then we all know that there isn’t a chance in
hell of that being voted by Congress

I think that it's utter cynicism to suggest possibilities that are
politically impossible. The life of the law should be experience and
not arid logical possibility.


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Re: "Divisiveness"

2014-06-09 Thread mallamud
There is some authority for not preferring religion over non-religion.  
I do not think religious people should get exemptions reasons not 
connected to the practice of their religion (church services, prayer, 
lighting candles, sacrificing chickens etc.) To me many requests sound 
like "I think it is wrong for religious reasons" and therefore other 
people should not engage in that behavior.  E.g. I will not pay my taxes 
because taxes pay for killing people.  No one is asking the owners of 
Hobby Lobby to engage in activities that they believe offend their 
religion; they are seeking not to pay employees in such a way that 
certain contraceptives would be covered.  The decision to use or not use 
the contraceptives is the employees'.  One difficulty is that the courts 
are loath to inquire into to the closeness of the connection of the 
claim to the religious belief.  But without limits exemptions will 
become legion.


Exemptions usually involve some unfairness.  That would be mitigated if 
religious exemptions were limited to the actual practice of religion 
rather than attempts to impose beliefs on others through refusing to 
comply with general laws. Smith is a good example and, as we know, does 
not stop you from sacrificing chickens because people in the community 
are offended.  Take it outside the church or home and give exemptions to 
general laws and that will create problems if the exemptions become wide 
enough to make it seem that religious folks have general privileges in 
society that secular folks do not.  Cf. Affirmative action.


I noted previously Scalia's citation (in during oral argument) of the 
overwhelming majority extending the VRA as evidence that the law was not 
carefully considered. During RFRA's passage and thereafter I focused on 
conservatives articulating the issue as one in which the Supreme Court 
disrespected religion, and those on the other side of the spectrum 
articulated the Smith decision as having disrespected constitutional 
rights.  From discussion about Scalia with lawyers and non-lawyers, I 
cannot help thinking that a dislike of Scalia contributed to one side's 
support of RFRA.


   Jon


On 2014-06-09 17:00, Steven Jamar wrote:

“nones”?
Huh.  I knew that was a thing, but didn’t really expect to see it 
here.


Steve

On Jun 9, 2014, at 4:49 PM, mallamud  
wrote:


I agree with Alan's statement below, stated better than I did.  I 
would add that we now do/should include the nones within the system.


  Jon

On 2014-06-08 22:36, Alan Brownstein wrote:
If divisive means that people will be upset by a substantive 
decision

than Eugene is clearly correct. I have always thought the issue was
whether a decision was one that provoked political divisions along
religious lines in the sense that if government could promote 
religion
(or interfere with religion) religious groups would have an 
additional

incentive to organize and mobilize as religious groups in order to
make sure that it was their faith that the government promoted and
that it was not their faith that was subject to government
interference. Placing a church-state issue beyond the scope of
political decision-making by subjecting it to constitutional
constraints avoided (or at least mitigated) these kinds of
political/religious divisions.

There is probably a better term for this concern than divisiveness.

Alan Brownstein














From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu
[religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] on behalf of Volokh, Eugene
[vol...@law.ucla.edu]
Sent: Sunday, June 08, 2014 4:54 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: "Divisiveness"

   I agree very much with Tom on this point.  In most
controversies, both sides are acting in ways that could plausibly 
be

labeled as "divisive."  Government religious speech may be seen as
"divisive," because it may alienate members of other religious 
groups;

but prohibitions on such speech, or litigation seeking such
prohibition, may be as divisive or more so.  A pro-Hobby-Lobby
decision might be divisive, but an anti-Hobby-Lobby decision might 
be

divisive.  Indeed, academic criticism of a pro-Hobby-Lobby decision
(or an anti-Hobby-Lobby decision) might be divisive -- and so was 
the
implementation of the mandate without a broad religious exemption, 
as
Tom points out.  The Employment Division v. Smith regime can be 
seen

as divisive -- but the RFRA regime, or the Sherbert regime, which
makes controversial judicially implemented religious accommodations
possible, can apparently be divisive, too.

   Indeed, in my experience, most people -- I speak generally
here, and not with a focus on this list -- can easily see the
potential "divisiveness" of decisions they dislike on substantive
grounds, but don't even notice the div

RE: "Divisiveness"

2014-06-09 Thread mallamud
I agree with Alan's statement below, stated better than I did.  I would 
add that we now do/should include the nones within the system.


   Jon

On 2014-06-08 22:36, Alan Brownstein wrote:

If divisive means that people will be upset by a substantive decision
than Eugene is clearly correct. I have always thought the issue was
whether a decision was one that provoked political divisions along
religious lines in the sense that if government could promote 
religion
(or interfere with religion) religious groups would have an 
additional

incentive to organize and mobilize as religious groups in order to
make sure that it was their faith that the government promoted and
that it was not their faith that was subject to government
interference. Placing a church-state issue beyond the scope of
political decision-making by subjecting it to constitutional
constraints avoided (or at least mitigated) these kinds of
political/religious divisions.

There is probably a better term for this concern than divisiveness.

Alan Brownstein














From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu
[religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] on behalf of Volokh, Eugene
[vol...@law.ucla.edu]
Sent: Sunday, June 08, 2014 4:54 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: "Divisiveness"

I agree very much with Tom on this point.  In most
controversies, both sides are acting in ways that could plausibly be
labeled as "divisive."  Government religious speech may be seen as
"divisive," because it may alienate members of other religious 
groups;

but prohibitions on such speech, or litigation seeking such
prohibition, may be as divisive or more so.  A pro-Hobby-Lobby
decision might be divisive, but an anti-Hobby-Lobby decision might be
divisive.  Indeed, academic criticism of a pro-Hobby-Lobby decision
(or an anti-Hobby-Lobby decision) might be divisive -- and so was the
implementation of the mandate without a broad religious exemption, as
Tom points out.  The Employment Division v. Smith regime can be seen
as divisive -- but the RFRA regime, or the Sherbert regime, which
makes controversial judicially implemented religious accommodations
possible, can apparently be divisive, too.

Indeed, in my experience, most people -- I speak generally
here, and not with a focus on this list -- can easily see the
potential "divisiveness" of decisions they dislike on substantive
grounds, but don't even notice the divisiveness of decisions they
think are sound.  After all, if one thinks a decision is sound, it's
easy to view those who disagree as just unreasonable, so that their
feelings of alienation don't really count (since they deserved to
lose, and are now just being sore losers).

Of course,

Eugene

Tom Berg writes:

I get those arguments, but they don't really seem to rest on a 
ruling for Hobby
Lobby being "divisive"--they rest on it being (assertedly) 
substantively wrong.
One could just as easily charge the Obama administration with being 
"divisive"
(undermining "harmony," to use Jon's term) by adopting the mandate 
in the first
place. (See Rick Garnett's piece on why arguments about divisiveness 
should do

only very limited work in religion cases.)

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Re: "Divisiveness"

2014-06-08 Thread mallamud
I am not suggesting that "divisiveness" should be a rule of decision.  
Rather the purpose of the religion clauses is to allow people with 
strong, differing views live together in reasonable harmony.  Thus in 
interpreting religious exemptions the Court needs to keep that principle 
in mind.  Perhaps the Hobby Lobby decision itself is not important, but 
it will set a precedent.  As far as I am concerned medical insurance 
provided by the employer is compensation and the employer should not be 
able to limit an employee's use of compensation. If the religious view 
that enabling someone else to get an abortion, or birth control that the 
employer, but not the medical profession, regards as abortion, then 
almost any arguably religious based claim must be upheld.  That, I 
suggest, would give people defining their own religious beliefs an 
exemption to interfere with the rights of others.  And a country where 
religious people, but not others, need not obey the general laws of the 
land is not the way to help the religious and the non-religious live 
together in reasonable peace.  So what I am talking about is not the 
consequences of any one decision, but of a general interpretation of 
religious exemptions.


I do realize that Congress has the right to enact federal law with 
exceptions, but as with conscientious objection, I do not think it is 
proper to treat non-religious people unequally.  I have never seen an 
argument that the due process clause limits the religion clauses 
although I have seen equal protection reasoning use in free speech 
cases.


Someone (maybe off-list) suggested that treating for-profit companies 
like non-profit groups and allowing them to put the cost of coverage on 
the insurance companies on the theory that there is no significant cost 
to the companies of covering contraception would solve the problem.  But 
as I understand it, the Little Sisters of the Poor will not certify that 
they have a religious objection to covering abortion because that 
certification would facilitate their employees in obtaining such 
services.


Finally, I realize that there are many other problems with other 
freedoms stemming from mandated health insurance coverage.  For example, 
should employers be allowed to refuse to hire smokers, or people who eat 
junk food, or who drink the "Big Gulp" at fast food places?  There was a 
case argued before the NY Court of Appeals last week about whether the 
Board of Health in New York City had the power to prohibit serving sodas 
in containers larger than a specified size.  But I realize this goes 
beyond the list. To avoid an inconsistency argument  in stating that 
employers should not control the use of compensation by employees based 
on the employers' religious views I mention this.  I know there might be 
competing considerations in other areas.  And I am not taking a position 
on them now.


   Jon

On 2014-06-08 19:54, Volokh, Eugene wrote:

I agree very much with Tom on this point.  In most controversies,
both sides are acting in ways that could plausibly be labeled as
"divisive."  Government religious speech may be seen as "divisive,"
because it may alienate members of other religious groups; but
prohibitions on such speech, or litigation seeking such prohibition,
may be as divisive or more so.  A pro-Hobby-Lobby decision might be
divisive, but an anti-Hobby-Lobby decision might be divisive.  
Indeed,

academic criticism of a pro-Hobby-Lobby decision (or an
anti-Hobby-Lobby decision) might be divisive -- and so was the
implementation of the mandate without a broad religious exemption, as
Tom points out.  The Employment Division v. Smith regime can be seen
as divisive -- but the RFRA regime, or the Sherbert regime, which
makes controversial judicially implemented religious accommodations
possible, can apparently be divisive, too.

Indeed, in my experience, most people -- I speak generally here, and
not with a focus on this list -- can easily see the potential
"divisiveness" of decisions they dislike on substantive grounds, but
don't even notice the divisiveness of decisions they think are sound.
After all, if one thinks a decision is sound, it's easy to view those
who disagree as just unreasonable, so that their feelings of
alienation don't really count (since they deserved to lose, and are
now just being sore losers).

Of course,

Eugene

Tom Berg writes:

I get those arguments, but they don't really seem to rest on a 
ruling for Hobby
Lobby being "divisive"--they rest on it being (assertedly) 
substantively wrong.
One could just as easily charge the Obama administration with being 
"divisive"
(undermining "harmony," to use Jon's term) by adopting the mandate 
in the first
place. (See Rick Garnett's piece on why arguments about divisiveness 
should do

only very limited work in religion cases.)

___
To post, send message to R

RE: Hobby Lobby/Ellen Katz

2014-06-08 Thread mallamud

Eugene,

I agree that "it would [not] be proper for him to take a different

approach because he wants people to "take a more nuanced view of him"
or because he wants to "convic[e] people that the Supreme Court
deserves respect."


Judges must make decisions based on their best judgment without 
regard to whether people would like them.  It is for law professors, 
lawyers and others to evaluate decisions.  I do think there is an 
obligation for legally trained people to defend as well as criticize the 
Supreme Court and I believe that given the partisanship that may tear 
our country apart, the time to do so is now. I also do not believe 
Justices must stick to the views they had before they were appointed. 
They need to reevaluate those views in the light of changed 
circumstances and the broader perspective from the view from the highest 
court.


Thus, I just hope he sees the problem as he did in Smith and weighs 
that against a statute that, if interpreted broadly, would go against 
the policy of the free speech clauses: to let people of many different 
views to live together in harmony.  The application of strict scrutiny 
to protect all religious views would be extremely disruptive.


 I believe based on arguments Marci makes that RFRA is 
unconstitutional, but despite her brief, I do not think that that is at 
issue in Hobby Lobby.


   Jon







On 2014-06-08 12:58, Volokh, Eugene wrote:

I'm still not sure I understand.  Let's say Justice Scalia thinks --
as seems quite plausible -- that the Free Exercise Clause is best
interpreted as not securing religious exemptions.  And let's say that
he also thinks, as is also quite possible, that (1) there's no
constitutional bar to Congress's providing by statute what the Free
Exercise Clause does not itself provide, (2) it's not for secular
courts to second-guess claimants' sincere claims that the law 
violates

their religious beliefs, based on a judgment that those beliefs are
based on too "tenuous" causal connections, and (3) the proposed
exemption doesn't interfere with the rights and freedoms of others.  
I

can't really see how it would be proper for him to take a different
approach because he wants people to "take a more nuanced view of him"
or because he wants to "convic[e] people that the Supreme Court
deserves respect."

Now of course if there's a sound substantive argument for why, for
instance, RFRA is unconstitutional, then by hypothesis Justice Scalia
should be persuaded by it.  But what would that argument be?

Eugene


-Original Message-
From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [mailto:religionlaw-
boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of mallamud
Sent: Sunday, June 08, 2014 9:44 AM
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: RE: Hobby Lobby/Ellen Katz

People with whom I speak view Justice Scalia as a staunch 
conservative.
They also associate deference to religion as a conservative 
position.
If Scalia were to use what he obviously knows from his decision in 
Smith to deny
religious exemptions based on tenuous connections where they 
interfere with
the rights and freedoms of others, I think some people might take a 
more
nuanced view of him.  One small step in convincing people that the 
Supreme
Court deserves respect because the Justices decide based on their 
best judgment
of the good of the country and not on preconceived liberal or 
conservative
biases.  [Sub-point: Just as Scalia pointed to the wildly 
overwhelming majority by
which Sec. 5 of the VRA was extended for 25 years, I feel that one 
reason for the
enactment or RFRA, again, an overwhelming majority, stemmed from 
liberals'
dislike of Scalia.  Clearly not suitable as a decisional factor, but 
it undermines the

statute in my personal opinion.]

 Jon

On 2014-06-08 12:24, Volokh, Eugene wrote:
> I appreciate the general concerns raised in Jon Mallamud's post -- 
but

> I just don't see how items 1 to 5 lead to the conclusion in item
> 6
> about Hobby Lobby.  Could you elaborate, please, why it would not 
be

> "wis[e]" for Justice Scalia to view RFRA as constitutional as to
> federal laws, and as justifying Hobby Lobby's claims in this case?
> The conclusion that the standard rejected in Smith is an unsound
> interpretation of the Free Exercise Clause doesn't obviously mean 
that
> Congress lacks the power to implement such a standard in a 
statute.
> Maybe that is ultimately the correct conclusion, but I think that 
it

> needs some more justification.
>
>Eugene
>
> Jon Mallamud writes:
>
>>  6. I find that the reasons behind Employment Division v. 
Smith

>> (which I have come to believe stated the best rule) apply to the
>> evil

RE: Hobby Lobby/Ellen Katz

2014-06-08 Thread mallamud
People with whom I speak view Justice Scalia as a staunch conservative. 
They also associate deference to religion as a conservative position. 
If Scalia were to use what he obviously knows from his decision in Smith 
to deny religious exemptions based on tenuous connections where they 
interfere with the rights and freedoms of others, I think some people 
might take a more nuanced view of him.  One small step in convincing 
people that the Supreme Court deserves respect because the Justices 
decide based on their best judgment of the good of the country and not 
on preconceived liberal or conservative biases.  [Sub-point: Just as 
Scalia pointed to the wildly overwhelming majority by which Sec. 5 of 
the VRA was extended for 25 years, I feel that one reason for the 
enactment or RFRA, again, an overwhelming majority, stemmed from 
liberals' dislike of Scalia.  Clearly not suitable as a decisional 
factor, but it undermines the statute in my personal opinion.]


Jon

On 2014-06-08 12:24, Volokh, Eugene wrote:

I appreciate the general concerns raised in Jon Mallamud's post --
but I just don't see how items 1 to 5 lead to the conclusion in item 
6

about Hobby Lobby.  Could you elaborate, please, why it would not be
"wis[e]" for Justice Scalia to view RFRA as constitutional as to
federal laws, and as justifying Hobby Lobby's claims in this case?
The conclusion that the standard rejected in Smith is an unsound
interpretation of the Free Exercise Clause doesn't obviously mean 
that

Congress lacks the power to implement such a standard in a statute.
Maybe that is ultimately the correct conclusion, but I think that it
needs some more justification.

Eugene

Jon Mallamud writes:

 6. I find that the reasons behind Employment Division v. Smith 
(which I have
come to believe stated the best rule) apply to the evils of using 
the standard
rejected in Smith in applying all federal statutes.  So in Hobby 
Lobby I would like
to see Justice Scalia find a way to apply his wisdom rather than his 
past
predilection to enforce statutes no matter what the result. I was 
upset when he
failed to enforce limits to the Commerce Clause in extending federal 
law to
state authorization of the use of medical marijuana.  Perhaps some 
day I will get
to see why he did that and come to appreciate his view as I have his 
views in

Smith.

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RE: Hobby Lobby/Ellen Katz

2014-06-08 Thread mallamud
Because my concern applies to other areas and this is a religion law 
list, I understand that my comment (4) needs more explanation.
1. The extreme partisanship in our political system needs 
ameliorating.  Some years ago I wrote that in the confirmation process 
Senators needed to exercise restraint in the consideration of 
prospective Justices because to tie them to politically acceptable 
positions would undercut the preservation of rights, essentially an 
anti-majoritarian process.  7 St. John's Journal of Legal Commentary 203 
(1991).
2. I am much taken with Justice Douglas' idea that it takes 5 to 10 
years for a new Justice to develop a good approach to making decisions 
because a Justice needs to put aside ideas and positions held before 
joining the Court and seek a perspective based on the Supreme Court's 
unique role.
3. I was impressed with the Supreme Court's handling of Brown v. 
Bd.of Ed. when it stressed the need for everyone to defer to the 
decisions of the Court.  See Cooper v. Aaron.  Today I find it unhelpful 
that so many people criticize the Court using the Court as a whipping 
boy in discussing cases such as Bush v. Gore, Citizens United and Shelby 
County (re Sec. 5 of the VRA).  At some point "confessional" issues need 
to be put to rest by the Court.  Otherwise our society may become unduly 
fractured by political disagreement.  In an appropriate forum I can 
defend all three decisions.
4. I am concerned that the dissenters in affirmative action and 
voting rights cases do not see the changes that have taken place and 
refuse to admit that achieving a society not based on race may require 
change in the legal stances taken in the 1960s, 70s and 80s.
5. When I defend the actions of the Court to non-lawyers, I would 
like to argue that the Supreme Court does not decide cases based on 
personal political predilections, but takes a broader view based on the 
overall functioning of our political system and their best judgment of 
the good of the society as a whole.  I find this hard to do in the light 
of many recent decisions.
6. I find that the reasons behind Employment Division v. Smith 
(which I have come to believe stated the best rule) apply to the evils 
of using the standard rejected in Smith in applying all federal 
statutes.  So in Hobby Lobby I would like to see Justice Scalia find a 
way to apply his wisdom rather than his past predilection to enforce 
statutes no matter what the result. I was upset when he failed to 
enforce limits to the Commerce Clause in extending federal law to state 
authorization of the use of medical marijuana.  Perhaps some day I will 
get to see why he did that and come to appreciate his view as I have his 
views in Smith.

  Jon



On 2014-06-07 16:40, Volokh, Eugene wrote:

Jon Mallamud writes:


4. Hobby Lobby represents to me an important test in how politically

motivated


the Court is becoming. In Boerne the Court held that in enforcing

the fourteenth


amendment, the Congress had to stick to the Supreme Court's

interpretation of


the constitution. In Employment Division v. Smith, Scalia

interpreted the


constitution for the Court and Congress tried to impose its own

interpretation.


If Scalia decides that a statute purporting to deal with all federal

law just as the


constitution does, and thus uses the rule of decision in RFRA to

decide a religious


exemption case, I would be concerned. Of course I am sure one could

write a


persuasive argument that Congress has full authority over statutes

it enacts and


Scalia could defer to the statute.


 I'm not sure why we should be "concerned" "[i]f Scalia decides that 
a

statute purporting to deal with all federal law just as the
constitution does, and thus uses the rule of decision in RFRA to
decide a religious exemption case." Congress has the power to carve
out exemptions from federal laws (even if lacks such power to carve
out exemptions from state laws, see Boerne). Smith simply holds that
the _Free Exercise Clause_ doesn't provide such exemptions - it
doesn't preclude statutory exemptions, no?

 By the way, if we should be concerned by Scalia's possible
pro-Hobby-Lobby vote, I take it we should be equally concerned by
Stevens' votes in Smith, Boerne, and O Centro, as well as by
Ginsburg's votes in Boerne and O Centro (since her vote in Boerne
suggests that she would have voted with the majority in Smith), no?

 Eugene


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Hobby Lobby/Ellen Katz

2014-06-07 Thread mallamud
Ellen Katz has an interesting article regarding the use of precedent by 
the Roberts Court with a view to what it might do in Hobby Lobby.  It is 
an informative read and a good background for speculating on what the 
result might be in that case. 
http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=2437958 It does 
provoke me to make a few comments.


1. I really do not think Citizens United needs to be read as protecting 
individual rights of corporations.  Rather, and I think Scalia said 
something to this effect, corporations are a way in which people carry 
on activities and the question becomes whether the people are protected 
by the first amendment in what they are doing.  In Citizens United the 
corporation was an advocacy corporation.  The Supreme Court did consider 
whether to treat advocacy corporations as protected and distinguish them 
from for-profit corporations.  The Court concluded that such a 
distinction would be too vague to make free speech rights dependent on 
it.  But we do have a form of church corporation which arguably might be 
treated differently for religious exemptions (I would not do so because 
I agree with Marci), but that would mean that a for-profit corporation 
would not enjoy "freedom of religion."


2. In fact the overwhelming majority of corporations in this country do 
not have sufficient resources to exercise "undue influence" tending to 
corruption in the public debate.  Many corporations are public interest 
groups.  So the use of "corporation" in the statute was hopelessly 
over-broad, a no-no in first amendment law.


3. At one time I taught Legal Process and explained the different ways 
of dealing with precedent.  Besides overruling cases courts could limit 
them to their facts, or re-characterize  them, perhaps by pointing out 
facts that were present in case but not used by the prior court as 
material facts.  When it comes to the Supreme Court, their freedom to 
refine prior holdings is, and should be, greater than lower courts and 
it should not surprise lawyers if they do so.  Furthermore, regarding 
using older cases, it is not illegitimate, in my opinion, to focus on an 
older line of cases where a single more recent decision departed from 
the older line of cases.


4. Hobby Lobby represents to me an important test in how politically 
motivated the Court is becoming.  In Boerne the Court held that in 
enforcing the fourteenth amendment, the Congress had to stick to the 
Supreme Court's interpretation of the constitution.  In Employment 
Division v. Smith, Scalia interpreted the constitution for the Court and 
Congress tried to impose its own interpretation.  If Scalia decides that 
a statute purporting to deal with all federal law just as the 
constitution does, and thus uses the rule of decision in RFRA to decide 
a religious exemption case, I would be concerned.  Of course I am sure 
one could write a persuasive argument that Congress has full authority 
over statutes it enacts and Scalia could defer to the statute.


  Jon

P.S. Thanks to the Con Law Professor Blog for noting Ellen Katz's 
article.

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Re: FW: Religious Exemption From Vaccination Policy Requires Acceptance of Secular Reasons As Well

2014-06-07 Thread mallamud
Marty's comment below suggests that Employment Division v. Smith sets 
the right standard.  Consider this paragraph of Marty;s:


"Assume that a state actor, such as a legislature or a state employer, 
granted a religious-only exemption to a vaccination requirement.  This 
actually happens quite frequently under state laws.  In my view this is 
an Establishment Clause violation, because of the harm to third parties. 
The interesting question is who can sue to complain about it.  A member 
of the public or a student at school who may be exposed to unimmunized 
religious objectors?  (Probably standing problems, at least in federal 
court.)  What about a secular objector who complains that the state 
cannot discriminate against her non-religious reasons for wanting the 
exemption -- a Texas Monthly-like case, in other words, but without the 
Free Speech/Free Press overlay?  The irony in such a case is that 
extending the exemption to secular objectors eliminates the 
Establishment Clause problem -- that's why some legislatures have done 
it! -- while at the same time further further undermining the underlying 
health reason for the vaccination requirement.  Should the secular 
objector be able to prevail in that case, relying principally on the 
harm to third parties that makes the religious exemption 
unconstitutional . . . even though that harm that will be exacerbated if 
the exemption if the plaintiff wins and the exemption is extended beyond 
religion?"


One should be free to practice one's religion as long as that practice 
does not have a reasonable negative impact on others.  Preventing people 
from being a nurse for failure to meet the job requirements does not 
prevent them from practicing their religion.  Just as the first 
amendment reflects a value of free speech that many of us would like 
private folks to follow, so the legal implementation of the freedom of 
religion clauses sets a value that people in their private capacity 
should follow.  Freedom of religion should not authorize people to 
impact my freedom, health or safety in a substantial way.  If a 
vaccination is determined to be necessary as a substantial requirement 
for employment, then all employees should be vaccinated or, at least, 
those employees whose vaccinations fall within the reason for the 
requirement and I do not see how religious views should afford an 
exemption. If the requirement only concerns the safety of the individual 
employee, that is a different case.


   
Jon


On 2014-06-07 07:37, Marty Lederman wrote:

Well, the opinion is a complete mess, and might not best be read as a
constitutional decision at all.  It does, however, suggest a lurking
interesting question about religious accommodations and vaccinations,
albeit one not raised by this case.

This is an unemployment compensation case involving a private
employer.  For the most part, the opinion appears to be a
straightforward APA-like arbitrary and capricious decision, not
implicating any constitutional decision.  The rationale is that the
religious accommodation undermined the employers stated health
objective for imposing the vaccination requirement, and therefore
there was no good reason for insisting upon the vaccination (and thus
no legal grounds for firing the plaintiff, thereby entitling her to
unemployment compensation).  The opinion ends with this holding: 

The record is uncontroverted that the employer did not produce
evidence showing appellants refusal to comply with its flu 
vaccination

policy for purely secular reasons adversely impacted the hospital or
otherwise undermined appellants ability to perform her job as a 
nurse.


Now, this is, of course, nuts.  I think it might be a function of the
fact that the employer did not appear in the case--only the state
board of unemployment compensation did.  But if, in the underlying
unemployment compensation proceedings, the hospital couldnt come up
with any evidence of adverse impact of the nurses refusal to be
immunized, it needs to hire better lawyers (or administrators).  To
be sure, the religious exemption _does _undermine the efficacy of the
vaccination requirement somewhat.  But presumably it doesnt blow it
to smithereens, or render it futile -- the patients are still _more
likely_ not to contract the flu if most (even if not all) employees
are vaccinated.

In the midst of all this misbegotten Ad Law stuff, however, the court
interjects two constitutional bits:  The first is an unadorned
sentence suggesting a free speech violation _by the unemployment
compensation board.  _(The hospital, recall, is a private
employer.)  The refusal of the board to give benefits to the secular
objector, writes the court, "unconstitutionally violated appellants
freedom of expression by endorsing the employers religion-based
exemption to its flu vaccination policy."  Theres no analysis here,
and this is, of course, even less coherent or justi

RE: Supreme Court Decides Town of Greece

2014-05-07 Thread mallamud
As far as I am concerned, any prayer before a legislative session 
suggests that our representatives need prayer to function, or need to 
pretend they need prayer in order to maintain the "respect" of their 
constituents.  Government is secular and should not function with 
prayers; freedom of religion should mean legislators are free to stop by 
their favorite place of worship to pray before or after entering the 
secular sphere: government.  On that basis, I would like to say that 
legislative prayer violates the first amendment.


But if legislative prayers are to be upheld, and the dissent does not 
say that no prayer is allowed, then the judicial supervision of the 
content of the prayers should be minimal.  We do not want judicially 
approved prayers.  Thus, if we are to have prayers, then the majority 
decision serves us better than the dissent's position would.


The dissent would open the door to any group wishing to flex its 
muscles to get publicity by suing legislative bodies.  Under the 
majority position, the bar to successful suits is much higher.


 I would think that the opposition to legislative prayer would come 
from the sincerely religious.  As a tolerant, secular person I am 
unlikely to be offended by any prayer because it comes from an 
intellectual world so different from mine; but one who sincerely 
believes in a doctrine, I would think, might be offended by a contrary 
doctrine.


   Jon



On 2014-05-05 16:35, Conkle, Daniel O. wrote:
The Court says that Marsh is not merely "an exception," but it goes 
on

to write an opinion linked specifically to the context at hand, i.e.,
legislative prayer. As I read Kennedy's opinion, the Court is saying
that if history and tradition clearly approve a practice, then there
is no need to invoke any broader or more general test. Conversely, 
the
Court might need such a more general test if history and tradition 
are

not so clear in the specific setting at hand. In any event, I don't
read the Court to be burying either Lemon or the endorsement test, at
least not explicitly, even though the Court does not apply them here.

It's interesting that even the dissenters accept Marsh as valid even
though they would reach a different result under their
"fact-sensitive" (Breyer's language) approach.

Dan Conkle
 
 Daniel O. Conkle
 Robert H. McKinney Professor of Law
 Indiana University Maurer School of Law
 Bloomington, Indiana 47405
 (812) 855-4331
 fax (812) 855-0555
 e-mail con...@indiana.edu [1]
 

.

FROM: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] ON BEHALF OF Marc Stern
 SENT: Monday, May 05, 2014 1:33 PM
 TO: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
 SUBJECT: RE: Supreme Court Decides Town of Greece

One thing that stands out as important for Justice Kennedy is the
absence of an intent to prefer the majority faith. .But what of the
effects test,which is still part of the law until Lemon is formally
overruled.(Interesting that the plurality did not even discuss the
vitality of Lemon.) Is that test irrelevant here only because of the
history and tradition of legislative prayer? Or is something else at
work?.

MARC D. STERN

General Counsel

212.891.1480

ste...@ajc.org [2]

LIKE US: Facebook.com/AJCGlobal [3]

FOLLOW US: Twitter.com/AJCGlobal [4]

 [5]

 AJC Global Forum: May 12-14 [6]

 ACCESS Summit: May 11-12 [7]

FROM: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [8]
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [9]] ON BEHALF OF Rick
Garnett
 SENT: Monday, May 05, 2014 1:24 PM
 TO: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
 SUBJECT: RE: Supreme Court Decides Town of Greece

Dear colleagues,

I thought that Prof. Marc DeGirolami (St. John's) made a number of
interesting and helpful observations - which suggest that at least
some matters might have been clarified a bit -- about Justice
Kennedy's opinion in this post ("The Jurisprudence of Tradition"):

http://mirrorofjustice.blogs.com/mirrorofjustice/2014/05/the-jurisprudence-of-tradition-10-points-on-justice-kennedys-opinion-in-town-of-greece.html
[10] Here are two of his "10 points":

1. By far the most prominent theme in Justice Kennedy's opinion is 
the

role of tradition and historical practice in validating the practice
of legislative prayer. That point is repeated no less than six or
seven times in all kinds of contexts. The practice is "part of our
expressive idiom" and our "heritage." Justice Kennedy writes that
"Marsh is sometimes described as "carving out an exception" to the
Court's Establishment Clause's jurisprudence," inasmuch as no "tests"
were applied in Marsh, but in reality, "[t]he Court in Marsh found
those tests unnecessary because history supported the conclusion that
legislative invocations are compatible with the Establishment Clause"
That's important. It indicates that the mode of analysis in Marsh was
not a carve-out, so m

Re: Hobby Lobby transcript

2014-03-29 Thread mallamud
Sorry to come late to the discussion. I have not read the transcript, 
and these comments are in response to two points made in the discussion.


1. Smith as a scandal.  Strong language, and while I agree with one's 
right to use such language, I find that the failure to consider the 
other side is unfortunate.  A great thing about freedom of religion is 
that, implemented well, it enables people with wildly different views to 
live together peaceably.  Thus general laws that are not targeted to 
religion should apply to all although limited accommodation may not 
matter too much. But when religious people may violate general laws that 
non-religious people or people with different religious views may not 
violate there is a clear preference for religion over non-religion and 
one religion over another. One might usefully discuss what "practice of 
religion" means, but I have some doubts that it includes interfering 
with another's legal rights because their exercise of those rights 
departs from your deeply felt religious beliefs. And yes, I do 
understand that some religions have absolutist tenets to prevent 
doctrinal violations by non-believers, but clearly we cannot live in a 
society in which a religious doctrine requiring the elimination of 
infidels gives rise to a "get-out-of-jail-free card."


2. I agree with Marty that the Court should decide these cases by 
holding that there is not substantial burden on the owners of Hobby 
Lobby and Conestoga, but for the reason that their asserted violation of 
their religious principles is too attenuated to be "substantial."  To 
say that their claims of substantial burden are either correct or that 
the Court may not inquire into the substantiality of beliefs would give 
rise to the widespread use of religion to exempt people from general 
laws, resulting in a preference for religion over non-religion and a 
preference for one religion over another. And that would give rise to 
the very dissension and resentment that the religion clauses should 
prevent.


3. As a general matter I think that experts in constitutional law have 
some obligation to examine both sides of Supreme Court opinions.  That 
does not prevent one from asserting that one side is right or wrong, but 
to denigrate opinions as scandalous is the kind of overstatement that 
undermines respect for the Court and serves to make the enforcement of 
rights against the majority view more difficult.  In the light of the 
facts of these ACA cases I cannot help but wonder whether some of those 
who supported RFRA now regret that support.  The characterization of 
Smith by many reminds me of the popular treatment of Citizens United 
backed up by the criticism of many Con Law scholars. As a teenager I 
firmly supported the rights of Communists to speak as being protected by 
the first amendment.  I find the denigration of Citizens United seems 
based on a very different interpretation of the first amendment than the 
interpretation I had as a teenager and I think that it enhances a view 
among some members of the public that corporations in general are bad 
and therefore may be silenced during political campaigns.


   Jon

On 2014-03-26 07:44, Marty Lederman wrote:

Thanks very much to everyone for the responses.  Some follow-ups:

1.  Most importantly, in response to Alan, the less-restrictive
"solution" that appeared to have some traction with the Justices was
_not_ simply that the government could in theory pay for the services
(with single-payer or a new tax scheme, for instance).  Such a
holding would be a radical deviation from decades of decisions -- Lee
and Tony & Susan Alamo would have come out differently, for
instance.  And the SG would and should have resisted that idea
strenuously, as he has done, in his briefs.

The argument, instead, is that once the agency has _already_ offered
an alternative (here, the "Notre Dame" solution) to a certain subset
of objectors (nonprofits) -- thereby demonstrating that that
alternative is viable for at least a certain group -- it has to treat
other religious objectors the same, unless there is good reason to
treat them differently.  This is, in effect, merely _O Centro _all
over again (recall that the government had no good reason for 
treating

hoasca differently from peyote).  As the SG indicated in his answers
to questions about the secondary accommodation, there _might _be such
a good reason for disparate treatment here:  For instance, extending
the accommodation to for-profit corporations _might _be far more
costly to the government than if it is limited to nonprofits,
depending on how many for-profit objectors are self-insured and use
third-party administrators.  (In such cases, the government
effectively picks up the tab by giving credits to the TPAs.)  Because
these plaintiffs have not asked for that remedy, there hasnt been any
occasion for the government to estimate such costs yet.  B

RE: RFRA's constitutionality

2014-01-06 Thread mallamud
I would argue that paying for health insurance coverage more closely 
resembles paying wages and that employee compensation that includes 
insurance creates a relationship between the insured and the insurance 
provider.  While that line admittedly is fuzzy, I honestly do not see 
how it involves the entity providing compensation in the particular 
services paid for by the insurer.  In that sense, I think the better 
view is to distinguish between involvement and payment of employee 
compensation.  Of course that does raise the question of whether a court 
can make that judgment even though that judgment neatly avoids the 
constitutional issue and interprets RFRA to avoid the establishment 
question. If you argue that the courts, under the first amendment, may 
not decide on the sincerity of the religious claim, then I have a large 
number of exemptions from general laws for you.  You just need to give 
me a few years to found my religion based on the idea that all men are 
created equal and endowed by their Creator with certain inalienable 
rights. [The last sentence reflects my personal view and not something I 
would teach although I do think the sincerity point needs to be 
discussed.]


 Jon

On 2014-01-06 01:08, Brad Pardee wrote:
The problem with the parallel to taxation is the nature of the 
funding.
When we pay taxes, it's a blank check that Congress can use for 
anything it
wishes.  They can spend it on war or they can use it to feed 
squirrels in
the park.  There are no specific directions provide with the payment 
of the
taxes, though.  It's the same as salaries.  We don't pay employees 
with

limitations on the things they can spend their paycheck on.

In contrast, insurance specifically enumerates the things it covers 
and the
things it does not.  Consequently, the employers who provide the 
insurance

are being compelled to specifically spend money on coverage for
contraceptives.

Brad

-Original Message-
From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of mallamud
Sent: Sunday, January 05, 2014 12:07 PM
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: Re: RFRA's constitutionality

I am sure it as been said before, but I cannot help stressing that 
nothing I
know of in the ACA forces anyone to use contraceptives or to undergo 
an
abortion.  The religious freedom to make those decisions is fully 
preserved.

As with having to pay taxes to support war, I do not consideration
compliance with a government mandate on employee compensation 
interferes
with religious rights protected by the first amendment, but then 
maybe the
first amendment prevents courts from making that judgment.  I am 
curious
about the extent to which religion-law jurisprudence prevents courts 
from
considering the sincerity of claims as well as the rationality of the 
nexus

between personal feelings and religious belief.

  Jon


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Re: RFRA's constitutionality

2014-01-05 Thread mallamud
I have reservations about equating the decision in Yoder with the 
endorsement of the specific practices that make Judy, Marci and others 
uncomfortable.  A short answer is the same as I would give for polygamy. 
There are less restrictive means of dealing with the evils than 
outlawing the legitimate religious aspects of a long-existing community. 
Allowing exceptions from some child-protective laws (such as school 
attendance) does not mean not policing abuses. Rather than a freedom of 
religion question, these concerns raise the issue of how far the state 
should intrude into domestic life.  While we all do not like to see 
children harmed, what justifies state intrusion raises substantial 
issues of what it means to live in a free country.  I fear that child 
abuse reporting laws, giving immunity for reporting child abuse, have 
been abused and certainly give rise to the potential for abuse.  But we 
also have many egalitarian and intentional and utopian communities both 
religious and not based on religion.  This this takes me off list and 
this is really beyond the scope of religion law, I just want to say that 
I would not judge the wisdom of the decision in Yoder by the fact that 
one can find abusive practices in Amish communities.


Jon

On 2014-01-05 16:56, Marci Hamilton wrote:

That reality is compounded by the presence of sibling incest and the
community's choice to stand behind the boy and expel a girl who tells
on the boy.

Marci

Marci A. Hamilton
Verkuil Chair in Public Law
Benjamin N. Cardozo Law School
Yeshiva University
@Marci_Hamilton

On Jan 5, 2014, at 4:21 PM, Judy Baer 
wrote:


Marci, I share your discomfort with Yoder.

Martha Nussbaum wrote that the impact of Yoder was worse for Amish
girls than for Amish boys, because the boys learned marketable
skills and the girls did not. So it was harder for girls to leave
the community.

Judy Baer

Sent from my iPhone

On Jan 5, 2014, at 11:41 AM, Marci Hamilton  wrote:


Michael-- My answers are interlineated below


1. Congress never debated the contraception mandate as part of
Obamacare. Thus the religious right never lost in Congress,


I do not think this meets my point. The paid lobbyists for many
religious groups watched this statute closely and let their views
be known. You don't need a floor debate to lose in Congress. In
fact, that describes
most legislation. Moreover, if they hadn't been paying attention,
that is a political loss in our system.


2. Are there any reports of any women objecting formally? I
understand they are the group that you claim are harmed, but
surely they could sue and properly bring this issue. In reality,
the vast majority of women will either receive coverage or
continue to buy ella and Plan B (for-profit cases rarely oppose
traditional contraception.) Sandra Fluke will get her
contraception-- she's not working for one of the few companies
impacted.


It makes no sense to risk your job
until the courts rule on whether employers have RFRA rights to
carve up health plans according
to their religious lights. We shall see what is really at stake
once the Court rules.

3.The Establishment Cla


because the contraception mandate pushes some religions out of a
debate that has been very real on the value of contraception.
You are assuming contraception helps women, and undoubtedly it
helps many. But that is a value judgement, and the
administration is using a regulation to try and end a debate on
this (as I noted above, without Congress's approval.

As a scientific matter, fully suppor

cientists, contraception helps the entire society by reducing
health costs, freeing women to choose when to have children (ie,
releasing them from biological determination), treating rape
victims, and treating many serious illnesses including
endometriosis. Those are facts, which are included in the women's
health care study which was basis of the contraceptive mandate.

4. There are only about 50 for-profit cases in a nation of


for-profit businesses. As of today, the exemption being argued
for is extremely narrow, and it is unfair to say this is a vast
"war on women" when this is a lot like _Yoder_, where few will
want this exception.

The exemption being requested

ngful boundary. The argument applies equally to emerge


ood transfusions. In my view, treatment of a rape victim is as
compelling an interest as a blood transfusion (treatment a
Jehovah's Witness employer would object to). If these employers
win, I expect children's vaccinations are next.

Yoder opened the door for the many parents who claim a religious
reaso

their children to school, to the detriment of those children. I
am not nearly as sanguine about Yoder as


is on the needs of each and every child.

Marci

On Sun, Jan 5, 2014 at 7:13 AM, Marci Hamilton <

target="_blank">hamilto...@aol.com> wrote:
http://lists.ucla.edu/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/religionlaw

Please note that messages sent to this large list cannot be viewed
as private

Re: RFRA's constitutionality

2014-01-05 Thread mallamud
I am sure it as been said before, but I cannot help stressing that 
nothing I know of in the ACA forces anyone to use contraceptives or to 
undergo an abortion.  The religious freedom to make those decisions is 
fully preserved.  As with having to pay taxes to support war, I do not 
consideration compliance with a government mandate on employee 
compensation interferes with religious rights protected by the first 
amendment, but then maybe the first amendment prevents courts from 
making that judgment.  I am curious about the extent to which 
religion-law jurisprudence prevents courts from considering the 
sincerity of claims as well as the rationality of the nexus between 
personal feelings and religious belief.


 Jon

On 2014-01-05 12:41, Marci Hamilton wrote:

Michael-- My answers are interlineated below


1. Congress never debated the contraception mandate as part of
Obamacare. Thus the religious right never lost in Congress,


I do not think this meets my point. The paid lobbyists for many
religious groups watched this statute closely and let their views be
known. You don't need a floor debate to lose in Congress. In fact,
that describes
most legislation. Moreover, if they hadn't been paying attention, 
that

is a political loss in our system.


2. Are there any reports of any women objecting formally? I
understand they are the group that you claim are harmed, but surely
they could sue and properly bring this issue. In reality, the vast
majority of women will either receive coverage or continue to buy
ella and Plan B (for-profit cases rarely oppose traditional
contraception.) Sandra Fluke will get her contraception-- she's not
working for one of the few companies impacted.


It makes no sense to risk your job
until the courts rule on whether employers have RFRA rights to carve
up health plans according
to their religious lights. We shall see what is really at stake once
the Court rules.

3.The Establishment Cla


because the contraception mandate pushes some religions out of a
debate that has been very real on the value of contraception. You
are assuming contraception helps women, and undoubtedly it helps
many. But that is a value judgement, and the administration is using
a regulation to try and end a debate on this (as I noted above,
without Congress's approval.

As a scientific matter, fully suppor

cientists, contraception helps the entire society by reducing
health costs, freeing women to choose when to have children (ie,
releasing them from biological determination), treating rape victims,
and treating many serious illnesses including endometriosis. Those 
are

facts, which are included in the women's health care study which was
basis of the contraceptive mandate.

4. There are only about 50 for-profit cases in a nation of hundr


profit businesses. As of today, the exemption being argued for is
extremely narrow, and it is unfair to say this is a vast "war on
women" when this is a lot like _Yoder_, where few will want this
exception.

The exemption being requested has

 boundary. The argument applies equally to emergency c


ransfusions. In my view, treatment of a rape victim is as compelling
an interest as a blood transfusion (treatment a Jehovah's Witness
employer would object to). If these employers win, I expect
children's vaccinations are next.

Yoder opened the door for the many parents who claim a religious
reason not

r children to school, to the detriment of those children. I am not
nearly as sanguine about Yoder as other


n the needs of each and every child.

Marci

On Sun, Jan 5, 2014 at 7:13 AM, Marci Hamilton <

t="_blank">hamilto...@aol.com> wrote:
 http://lists.ucla.edu/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/religionlaw

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Links:
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[5] mailto:lederman.ma...@gmail.com
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Re: RFRA's constitutionality

2014-01-04 Thread mallamud
In COOPER v. AARON, 358 U.S. 1 (1958) the Court quoted the first 
Justice Marshall's word in Marbury v. Madison: "It is emphatically the 
province and duty of the judicial department to say what the law is." 
The Court followed this quote by saying, "This decision declared the 
basic principle that the federal judiciary is supreme in the exposition 
of the law of the Constitution"  Although this statement overstates 
the supremacy of the Court given the constitutional separation of 
powers, it nevertheless states a basic principle in the context in which 
it was used, namely the interpretation of the constitution in 
controversial areas in which there will be resistance to the Court's 
decision.


In my view of judging, Supreme Court justices (and other judges) should 
use their best judgment in deciding cases based on a perspective 
peculiar to judges.  Once on the Court, a new justice needs to (and this 
perhaps takes time) put aside political and other views developed in 
other contexts and learn to see the country and its needs from the 
vantage point of the highest court.  At times that means deciding best 
how to interpret constitutional provisions to achieve their broad 
purpose in the light of national circumstances. In the area of freedom 
of religion that requires providing interpretations that minimize 
disharmony and promote tolerance.


Congress responds to the kind of political pressures that we would hope 
do not guide the Court.  As I have said, and I think that it is almost a 
truism, rights need to be protected against the majoritarian processes 
and in that sense I do not think that constitutional rights should be 
interpreted by the Congress which lacks the kind of broad perspective 
that the Court should have.


With RFRA I think Congress tried to interfere with the good judgment of 
the Court in Smith by responding to a democratic coalition.  That is not 
the way to define constitutional rights as the Court rightly decided in 
Boerne.  Certainly Congress has the authority to grant statutory rights 
insofar as they are not inconsistent with constitutional provisions.  
But I think it is unwise for advocates to try to upset Supreme Court 
decisions by the political process.  In that sense I think RFRA was 
unwise as applied to all statutes.  Finally RFRA reinforces the view 
that the political process should override the Court.  I do not like to 
say never, and there are means for Congress to discipline the courts 
including the Supreme Court.  But does anyone think the Congress should 
have been able to overturn the decision in Brown by legislation. At the 
same time, I can think of no limiting principle to allow the Court to 
amend all statutes by holding RFRA unconstitutional as applied to 
federal law.


My fear now revolves around the hyper-partisan climate.  The use of 
RFRA reinforces it and I cannot help suspecting that some of the liberal 
support for it resulted from a dislike of Justice Scalia.  In any event, 
reinforcing the public perception that the Supreme Court decides on 
narrow political preferences undercuts the necessary respect the Court 
needs for its anti-majoritarian decisions. RFRA to me reinforces the 
idea that rights are political, which they are, but need respect because 
of their minority nature in a democratic country. Thus, I think we do a 
disservice to the development of rights when we overemphasize their 
political nature and give the public the impression that the Supreme 
Court decides based on the preconceived views of those who become 
Justices.


   Jon

On 2014-01-04 11:29, Marci Hamilton wrote:

Marty-- I apologize for missing this because I think it raises an
important distinction. Thanks for raising it.

 I am saying in part that Smith supports a reading of beyond the
judicial ken, but I was basing my argument more on the Court's
structural jurisprudence (which Boerne fits squarely into) where the
branches (and state vs fed govt) have distinguishable stronger and
weaker capacities (which may overlap in some instances). In my view
courts legitimately take over the primary legislative role of policy
setting (which is what strict scrutiny is) in cases where there is
strong suspicion of a constitutional violation, eg, race based
distinctions or a law that is not neutral or generally applicable.

 It is illegitimate for them to take over the legislative role when
the law does not create a strong suspicion of a constitutional
violation, eg, a neutral, generally applicable law. In the RFRA,
RLUIPA cases, we routinely see federal courts answering questions 
they

have no capacity to answer, either from judicial inexperience (land
use in particular) or because the parties and rules of evidence and
their own institutional restrictions make it impossible to build a
record that will yield a well-reasoned or at least informed public
policy. If we were in a civil court system, or courts could hold
open hea

RE: courts and lawmaking

2013-12-30 Thread mallamud
I'll vary the hypothetical:  employer refuses to give maternity leave 
to unmarried women because it is against their beliefs to participate in 
covering the effects of sinful behavior.


After Brown v. Board of Education there were many people in the south 
who believed that their religion mandated the position of blacks in 
society. Statutes were enacted by the Congress to try to interfere with 
busing.  Suppose instead Congress had enacted a statute prohibiting the 
enforcement of Brown and statutes implementing it against people whose 
religious beliefs justified them in believing in the separation of the 
races.  Suppose Congress in execution of its power to enforce the 14th 
amendment had tried to reinstate the separate but equal doctrine by 
amending all federal statutes to provide for an exemption from 
compliance for people who had religious objections. That really is what 
RFRA tries to do.


I agree that for many religious people, especially those who take their 
religion very seriously, religion governs their whole life.  I would 
agree that we should, where practical, not try to interfere.  I have no 
objection to teachers wearing discrete indicia of their faith in class, 
for example.  But it goes too far to say that when a woman needs an 
emergency abortion, and there is only one doctor available, that that 
doctor should be allowed not to save the woman's life because of a 
sincerely held religious belief. Private businesses provide services in 
the public interest.  Some services are more crucial to others.  A 
pharmacy should always have someone on call to provide things like the 
morning after pill unless there is a close-by pharmacy that would 
provide it.  Free exercise should not be taken to license withholding 
services that I think I need, where alternatives are not available.  One 
is not forced to enter particular businesses or professions if their 
religious beliefs prevent them from providing those services.  That is 
my view.  I am not sure how far the law should go, but I do not think it 
should enable Hobby Lobby to avoid paying for an employees mandated 
health services in the health insurance they provide.


   Jon

On 2013-12-30 19:29, Brad Pardee wrote:

It seems that this definition of free exercise is very narrow in its
understanding of what it means to practice one's religion.  Some
choose to compartmentalize life into religious areas and 
non-religious

areas with different rules to guide their actions in each.  I think
most people, though, exercise their faith in all areas of life 24/7.
I'm exercising my religion when I tell the truth, when I try to treat
people with kindness, when I advocate for social justice.  The
abolitionists of the mid-1800s who came out of the second Great
Awakening were exercising their religion when they denounced slavery
and when they aided escaped slaves.  They didn't limit their
activities to their churches, their homes, or gatherings of
co-religionists.  The same is true of civil right activists such as
the Rev. Martin Luther King , Jr.  It would be impossible to make the
case that Rev. King's religious beliefs were not part and parcel of
his fight for racial equality.  There is a world of d!
 ifference between freedom of religious belief and worship and free
exercise of religion.

I don't believe RFRA would authorize the kind of hiring you describe.
Nobody suggests that, in order to accommodate religions freedom, an
employer can require its employees to be virgins because of the
employer's belief that pre-marital sex is wrong.  And in the case of
Hobby Lobby, they are not claiming that they can require employees to
refrain from using contraception because the owners of Hobby Lobby
believe contraception is wrong.  What Hobby Lobby has stated is:  
"The

Green family's religious beliefs forbid them from participating in,
providing access to, paying for, training others to engage in, or
otherwise supporting abortion-causing drugs and devices."  None of
that has any bearing on what employees do with their paychecks or 
what
decisions they make in their private lives.  It simply says that 
their

religious beliefs forbid them to be involved in procuring those
contraceptives .

Brad Pardee

-Original Message-
From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of mallamud
Sent: Monday, December 30, 2013 3:59 PM
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: RE: courts and lawmaking


While I am not sure that I can sustain this view in the marketplace
of ideas, I think that "free exercise" means practice one's religion,
something one does in churches or other such places or even at
HumanLight festivals, and at home, and at places with groups of
co-religionists.  To me, Smith gave a good interpretation that serves
the overall purpose of the religion clauses.  And to me, RFRA
authoriz

Re: courts and lawmaking

2013-12-30 Thread mallamud

Marci,

   Perhaps, like murder, there should be no limitations period when it 
comes to child abuse.  But I think that altering the statute of 
limitations should be done prospectively, not retroactively.  To the 
extent that statutes of limitations make sense, and they do, retroactive 
change defeats their purpose.  Beyond that there is a question of the 
ability to get justice long after the fact.  Thus, changing the 
limitations period because of public abhorrence of certain actions, 
deplorable as they are, may seriously neglect other fundamental values, 
such as a fair trial.
   To what extent would proceeding vigorously against current abuse 
serve the interests of getting rid of the practice?  After that consider 
the extent to which compensation undoes the serious effects of the abuse 
and serves the need for retribution as opposed to the harm done to the 
values of a fair trial.  And is it not at least some solace to victims 
that the crime to which they have been subject is now being punished 
even if no action can be taken against the person who abused them.
   My point here is not to answer that question, but to suggest that 
changing the statute of limitations because of public outrage without 
considering the harm to the values served by such statutes is a mistake 
akin to allowing public outcry to limit other fundamental freedoms.


   Jon




On 2013-12-29 22:20, hamilto...@aol.com wrote:

That is a fact. I was told by a member of Congress during RLPA's
hearings that he knew full well it would be unconstitutional, but he
would vote for it
regardless. They game play constitutionality both ways, actually. 
Just

this year, two members of the PA legislature (who are not lawyers)
have insisted
that under the PA Constitution, statute of limitations reform for
child sex abuse is unconstitutional. That is unsupported by a single
case, but they are
using constitutional arguments to cover for the Catholic bishops.

These kinds of games counsel in favor of observing the structural
limitations of the branches, and not just results. They need to be
reminded of their
role on a regular basis, because they are all willing, if given the
opportunity, to take the power others have if they can get it. That 
is

the principle at work
when Justice O'Connor stated in _NY v US _that just because the 
states

acquisced in an unconstitutional takeover of their power did not make
that federal
takeover constitutional.

Marci

Marci A. Hamilton
 Paul R. Verkuil Chair in Public Law
 Benjamin N. Cardozo School of Law
 Yeshiva University
 55 Fifth Avenue
 New York, NY 10003
 (212) 790-0215
 http://sol-reform.com [1]

 [2] [3]

-Original Message-
 From: Graber, Mark 
 To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics

 Sent: Sun, Dec 29, 2013 4:00 pm
 Subject: RE: courts and lawmaking

Probably worth noting that there is an entire literature in political
science,
both with respect to American courts and foreign tribunals, on the
political
construction of judicial review. The general thesis, drastically
oversimplified
(and articulated differently by different people), is that
constitutional review
exists because most elected officials most of the time think that
having courts
declare laws unconstitutional serves a variety of political 
interests.


MAG

From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu
[religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On
Behalf Of Paul Horwitz [phorw...@hotmail.com]
Sent: Sunday, December 29, 2013 3:45 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: courts and lawmaking


Subject: Re: courts and lawmaking
From: phorw...@hotmail.com
Date: Sat, 28 Dec 2013 23:17:10 -0500
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
CC: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu

Although I don't share this orientation, this is certainly an
interesting
discussion. I'm wondering how New York Times v. Sullivan and Roe v.
Wade would
fare under this standard, and possibly Baker v. Carr or Miranda.

On Dec 28, 2013, at 10:51 PM, "Marci Hamilton"
mailto:hamilto...@aol.com>>
wrote:

Eugene- I take it you would not have overturned the Lochner line of
cases?
Your defense of unaccountable, robust policy making by judges would
revive the
federal court's role in those cases and reverse the reasoning of, eg,
Williamson
v lee optical. You have also failed to articulate any meaningful 
limit

on
federal court policy making.
Perhaps you think there should be no limit, but that is not 
consistent

w the
separation of powers cases or the Framers' belief that all entities
holding
power must be limited and that one means of limitation is to assign
different
primary roles to each branch.

also--It is not enough to say that Congress can fix a bad decision to
excuse a
violation of a branch's structural role.

I also question your broad generalizations in describing purported
federal
judicial policy making . As you have to and do concede, federal 
common

law is
forbidden, 

RE: Response to Tom Berg (and others)

2013-12-02 Thread mallamud
Taking a broader view, I believe that the first amendment religion 
clauses, first and foremost, are there to minimize disharmony in the 
society that results form government supported religion and the denial 
of one's ability to practice one's religion.  To that end, I think that 
Employment Division v. Smith as modified by the Santeria case provides 
the best baseline from which to proceed. Once we get beyond the actual 
practice of religion at home or in a house of worship, or the violation 
of important laws in a house of worship or at home (home is protected to 
some extent by the 4th Amendment, etc.) we get to some difficult cases.  
At this point we need to keep in mind that exemption from laws could, if 
widespread, cause jealous and possible hostile reactions from those who 
do not get the privilege of those exemptions.  Consider the exemption 
from military service for certain Jewish sects in Israel.  When I was 
college there were meals at which most of us ate casserole dishes, but 
kosher students got steak.  Not a big deal, but annoying.  Since the 
contraceptive the cost of ordinary contraception is not great, one might 
argue exemption is no big deal (I know there are arguments on the other 
side).  Annoying perhaps.  I just noticed that the Supreme Court 
declined to hear a case contesting the health care mandate on employers. 
If a business were exempt from providing contraceptive coverage for 
employees, I imagine that Christian Scientists operating a business 
would be exempt from providing health care insurance.  At that point a 
Christian Scientist would have a competitive advantage.  That would be a 
big deal.


So it seems to me that providing exemptions from laws of general 
application on religious grounds should violate the first amendment.  In 
minor situations it may present little cause to fear disharmony, but 
extended to health care and requirements the exemption from which would 
provide a competitive advantage, serious concerns about the major 
purpose of freedom of religion arise.  With health care mandates, I 
would argue that participation in business (the competitive market 
place) people need to conform to the general laws (Employment Division) 
as long as the laws do not have the purpose of going against a 
particular religion.


I have long believed that the RFRA formulation authorizes polygamy 
because all of the evils of polygamy can be handled by less restrictive 
means.


In short, given my view of the purpose of the religion clauses in the 
first amendment, I would hold that exemptions from general laws violate 
the Establishment Clause.  Of course, to fulfill the goals of the value 
of harmony, one cannot follow a doctrinal dictate in all cases (I doubt 
that there can be definitive legal doctrine in these cases). 
Conscientious objection can be allowed to withstand a first amendment 
challenge so long as alternative service is required.  While that, on 
its face would be a violation, practical considerations of promoting 
harmony by allowing a safety-valve where failure to do so might generate 
extreme hostility justify exceptions.  But those exceptions can not be 
brought within the doctrine any more could the prohibition of polygamy 
be brought within the RFRA doctrine if it was found necessary to 
continue that prohibition for various practical reasons.  Legislative 
prayer, if upheld, clearly forms an exception to the general doctrine as 
does "Trust in God" on the money.  Since the need to profess a belief in 
God often forms a requirement to run for public office in this country, 
it results from decisions of many individual voters, arguably the first 
amendment is not implemented.  But I do not think anyone can claim that 
in general there is a not religious test for public office in this 
country in an overwhelming number of cases.


   
Jon



On 2013-12-01 13:37, Alan Brownstein wrote:

Thanks for the kind comment, Nelson. While the contraceptive coverage
in this case may not cost the employer anything, and the Court could
limit its holding in this case to those particular facts, I think
there is a somewhat broader, but still fairly limited, way to
conceptualize this case. Here the government is requiring employers 
to

provide intangible, fungible goods (insurance coverage and/or the
money needed to purchase it) to third parties (their employees).
Whenever this is the burden imposed on a religious objector, it is
relatively easy for the government to take over the responsibility 
for

providing such goods to their intended beneficiaries -- except the
government would bear the cost of doing so. Their are two problems
with assigning this burden to the government, however. The first, as
noted, is the financial cost of providing these goods to their
intended beneficiairies. Requiring the objector to contribute the 
cost

of the goods to some other public cause (ther!
 eby relieving the 

RE: "Patently Frivolous" and discrimination

2013-11-28 Thread mallamud
Someone raised the issue of the difference between paying a salary 
which the recipient uses in ways that would violate the payor's religion 
if done by the payor.  If the idea is that one cannot be forced to pay 
money where that money would be used in ways in violation of the payor's 
conscience or religious beliefs then a pacifist should not have to pay 
taxes where some of that money might be used in ways that violate 
his/her beliefs.  How are the two cases different aside from the greater 
impact of allowing people not to pay taxes because government acts in 
ways that violate their beliefs?

   Jon

On 2013-11-28 02:04, Volokh, Eugene wrote:

Jim Oleske writes:

My sense is that the language from the Piggie Park Court was
reflective of an accepted notion at the time that for-profit
businesses did not have a presumptive right to religious exemptions,
even if non-profit religious institutions might have such a right

Why would that be so, given _Braunfeld v. Brown_? I agree that the
challengers lost there, but they surely didn't lose on the grounds
that for-profit businesses lack Free Exercise Clause rights because
they are commercial concerns. I would think that the likelier
explanation of the _Piggie Park _"patently frivolous" comment is
simply that the Court viewed the government's interest as so 
obviously

strong as to clearly trump any religious objection.

The _Lee _language is stronger support for a
commercial-activity-excluded objection than the _Piggie Park
_language, I think. But the Court in _Lee _ultimately still applied
strict scrutiny, and it seems to me that the application of 
heightened
scrutiny to commercial for-profit activity - the sale of one's labor 
-

in _Sherbert_, _Thomas_, and the like suggests that religious
exemption regimes extend to people's for-profit activities as well as
their nonprofit activities.

Eugene

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Re: New Twist On Challenge to ACA Contraceptive Mandate

2013-08-18 Thread mallamud

Marci,
I have trouble seeing the compelling nature in the government's 
interest to provide contraception.  The cost is too low, and basically, 
contraception allows for pleasure and the enhancement of interpersonal 
relationships. The health justification comes closer, but compared to 
the provision of needles for drug use (I do not know if that is a 
compelling interest), there is certainly not generally addiction 
involved.  Even with abortion, government does not need to fund it--the 
compelling interest is in not making it illegal.

Jon

On 2013-08-17 10:57, Marci Hamilton wrote:

I agree w Chip and Jim on the baseline issue, but also the previous
point about the point of the Religion Clauses is not just rights for
the believer but also the path to peace in a diverse religious
culture. Lee and Bowen v Roy stand for the proposition that if one
chooses to employ or to take advantage of govt benefits, the Free
Exercise Clause does not provide a way out of the obligations that
come w the voluntary decision made by the believer. RFRA opens a door
for believers to get past these sensible decisions, but I do not 
think

that even if the parent who voluntarily chooses to cover his children
over the age of majority could prove substantial burden, the govt 
does

have a compelling interest in giving women the most realistic
opportunity to choose for themselves whether to use contraception for
any reason and to make sure those choices are as unhindered as men's
decisions to pursue their own choices. The women are being protected
by the govt from coercion by employers and parents.

The govt also has a compelling interest in keeping health care costs
under control. Chip mentions unwanted pregnancy; I mentioned some of
the medical reasons reproductive health services are needed, which 
can

affect GDP if untreated. And finally, there is the govt's legitimate
compelling interest in ensuring the health care system does not
discriminate on the basis of gender or religion and does enable
women's choices. There is no less restrictive means of giving each
woman her own choice regarding reproductive health than giving her a
choice.

The abortion decisions to date have all been about what the state can
do to restrict women's rights. But those restrictions are not
constitutionally required. Just because the government is not 
required

to pay for reproductive health care does not mean the govt does not
have a compelling interest in providing it. This is a new scenario
where the govt is on the side of women and reproductive rights, which
entails new ways of thinking.

Marci

Marci A. Hamilton
Verkuil Chair in Public Law
Benjamin N. Cardozo Law School
Yeshiva University
@Marci_Hamilton

On Aug 17, 2013, at 8:54 AM, James Oleske 
wrote:


Eugene,

No federal or state law required the Amish farmer in Lee to employ
workers, but once he made that choice, the Supreme Court used the
federal requirements governing employment benefits as the baseline
for evaluating externalities ("Granting an exemption from social
security taxes to an employer operates to impose the employer's
religious faith on the employees.").

Likewise, although no federal or state law requires parents to put
their adult children on their insurance, once they make that choice,
the argument is that federal requirements governing health benefits
should be used as the baseline for evaluating externalities.

Of course, it's certainly possible to argue that the baseline should
be set in a different place in parent/adult-child context than in
the employer/employee context, or in the health insurance context
than the employment context, but I think Chip is right that --
wherever one ultimately comes out -- this is a classic baseline
problem.

- Jim

Jim Oleske
Lewis & Clark Law School
SSRN Page: http://ssrn.com/author=357864 [3]
Faculty Page: http://law.lclark.edu/faculty/james_oleske/ [4]

On Fri, Aug 16, 2013 at 8:35 PM, Volokh, Eugene  wrote:


But wait: How can you read ACA as setting a baseline that _the
parents _should guarantee their adult children a full bundle of
health services? The ACA doesn’t require parents to do this. It
allows parents to do this, and many parents do indeed do this, but
adult children have no right vis-à-vis the parents to get
insurance coverage. The father is free to just tell his children,
“Sorry, I won’t get you health coverage”; that’s not
“taking” health coverage from them, it’s just choosing not
to give health coverage to them. How is it “taking” for him to
offer to give less than complete health coverage to them?

Eugene

FROM: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [1]
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [2]] ON BEHALF OF Ira
Lupu
SENT: Friday, August 16, 2013 6:07 PM
TO: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
SUBJECT: Re: New Twist On Challenge to ACA Contraceptive Mandate

Eugene and I agree that this legislator is not substantially
burdened in his religious freedom, be

RE: Harmony and the freedom of religion (RE: New Twist On Challenge to ACA Contraceptive Mandate)

2013-08-18 Thread mallamud
he latter

pertains


to whether an individual should follow his conscience regardless of

what


others, including the government, may do to him or her.







Ellis M. West



Emeritus Professor of Political Science University of Richmond, VA

23173


804-289-8536



ew...@richmond.edu [1]







-Original Message-



From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [2] [mailto:religionlaw-

[3]


boun...@lists.ucla.edu [4]] On Behalf Of Brad Pardee



Sent: Friday, August 16, 2013 2:36 PM



To: 'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'



Subject: Harmony and the freedom of religion (RE: New Twist On

Challenge


to ACA Contraceptive Mandate)







I'm not certain that this is a correct understanding of the purpose

of freedom


of religion.  It's always been my understanding that the essence of

religious


freedom is that a person is not forced to choose between obeying

their God


and obeying their government.  That's certainly at the heart of

free exercise,


where the government ought not to have a blank check to command what



God prohibits or to prohibit what God commands.  (It’s the same

philosophy


behind conscientious object legislation, where it's a matter of

personal


conscience rather than God that is involved.)







It has its limitations, just as freedom of speech does not protect

slander,


libel, or the proverbial "yelling fire in a crowded theater". 

There are certainly


instances where it is truly necessary to compel a person to act in a

certain


way, even if it is in violation of the tenets of their faith, but

that won't be the


case in every instance just because the legislature wants it to be

so.  At any


rate, though, I believe that this is the purpose of religious

freedom.  Ideally,


people who disagree with one another can choose to live in harmony

with


each other, whether the disagreement is a matter of religion,

economics,


foreign policy, or whose team is best positioned to win the Super

Bowl, but I


don't think that harmony is the driving purpose behind religious

freedom.






Brad







-Original Message-



From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [5] [mailto:religionlaw-

[6]


boun...@lists.ucla.edu [7]] On Behalf Of mallamud



Sent: Friday, August 16, 2013 11:16 AM



To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu [8]



Subject: RE: New Twist On Challenge to ACA Contraceptive Mandate







Freedom of religion should promote harmony.  Live and let live. 

It should not


provide religious people with the ability to interfere with the

provision of


benefits to those who do not share the same views.  This is a

classic case of


an officious intermeddler trying to cause trouble because of

personal


sensitivities.  Even were he to have a right, I think this is a

case where it is not


right to assert it.  Even if he would be satisfied with a

judicially mandated


provision in the policy excluding coverage for anyone with religious



objections to it, it is just wasting money and causing trouble. 

Religious


people should not interfere with benefits given to people who do not

share


their beliefs and if RFRA really gives them the option to do so,

RFRA is not


furthering the harmony religious freedom should promote.















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RE: New Twist On Challenge to ACA Contraceptive Mandate

2013-08-18 Thread mallamud
While this discussion presents an opportunity to engage in an 
intellectual discussion of the doctrine used to implement RFRA, it also 
highlights the problem involved its sweeping application.  As a legal I 
think that an earlier post (to which I referred in a previous post) 
suggesting that the plaintiff did not have standing ends the discussion 
relevant to the case. Alternatively I see no substantial burden.  
Nothing compels the plaintiff or his daughters to use contraception. The 
insurance provides benefits for which he pays but need not use unless he 
or his daughters make an independent decision to do so. The pork hypo in 
Allen Brownstein's post involves limiting a portion salary to purchase 
of something the recipient of the salary does not want and is arguably 
an unlawful seizing of purchasing power.


Although in law school torts class I was taught to focus on "result 
within the risk" rather than proximate cause, I think that the reasoning 
under proximate cause allows courts to avoid getting involved in complex 
discussion like the one on this thread.  In the case under discussion 
here whatever upset is caused by the plaintiff and his daughters having 
the capacity to purchase contraception is just too removed from the 
government action because, for their non-contraception beliefs to be 
violated, an intervening action must occur: they must act affirmatively 
to obtain contraceptives. [Note that there is no additional cost to the 
insured for the contraceptive coverage. But in any event, when we buy 
group health insurance we often get coverage (like maternity benefits) 
that many of us are in no position to use.]


Returning to my basic premise, allowing people to use the courts to 
vindicate emotional upset caused by mere disagreement with government 
policies will result in disharmony rather than the ability to live 
together in a diverse society, a major purpose of the religion clauses.


  Jon





On 2013-08-17 12:31, Alan Brownstein wrote:

This has been a fascinating thread. I'm on vacation and have not had
the opportunity to participate except for a quick comment right now.
With regard to the substantial burden, would the analysis change if 
we

characterized the ACA (at least for employees  who would not receive
subsidies for their insurance) as a regulation that requires 
employers

to pay part of their employee's compensation package with a health
insurance policy?

I assume that if the government required employers to pay their
employees 5% of their salary in non-transferable pork vouchers, that
would be a substantial burden on individuals who for religious 
reasons

do not eat pork -- even though I could just refuse to use the
vouchers.

I'm not sure that my hypo can be reasonably analogized to the ACA,
but if it can, then I think the substantial burden analysis might be
different.

Alan Brownstein




From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu
[religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] on behalf of Volokh, Eugene
[vol...@law.ucla.edu]
Sent: Friday, August 16, 2013 5:49 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: New Twist On Challenge to ACA Contraceptive Mandate

I agree; as I wrote near the start of the thread, "I'm not
sympathetic to the legislator's claim, and I'm not sure that the
provision of only a general insurance policy and not the one with the
exceptions substantially burdens the legislator's belief.  Indeed, 
the

legislator's ability to send a disclaimer to the insurance carrier
promising not to use certain services would, I think, suffice to
eliminate any burden he might feel from having the policy.  Cf. Tony 
&

Susan Alamo Foundation v. Secretary of Labor,
http://scholar.google.com/scholar_case?case=5047029536558334851
(alleged burden imposed by minimum wage law on employees who felt a
religious duty to volunteer was eliminated by the possibility of just
giving the money back)."

But that's a very different argument from the argument that
the legislator's seeking a narrower insurance policy is "imposing on
his daughters."  The problem with his claim isn't that he's somehow
denying his daughters something to which they're entitled, or that 
his

conduct creates an externality.

Eugene
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RE: New Twist On Challenge to ACA Contraceptive Mandate

2013-08-16 Thread mallamud
Take the hypothetical of food stamps that cover the purchase of meat, 
including pork.  Could a kosher person or a Muslim who believes his 
religion does not permit eating pork sue successfully to compel the 
government to issue food stamps that do not permit their use to buy 
pork?  Wouldn't the answer be that the decision to buy pork is retained 
by the individual just as the insurance policy does not require anyone 
to obtain contraceptives, let alone use them.

  Jon

On 2013-08-16 17:38, Volokh, Eugene wrote:

I still don't understand the rhetoric of "imposing on his daughters"
here. Plaintiff is entitled, as a benefit for himself because of his
employment, to coverage for his 18-year-old daughters as well as for
himself. But it's his choice; he is entirely free to say "Sorry, 
gals,

you're on your own now." Maybe that's unkind towards to his children,
but it's not something that the law views as "imposing on his
daughters the cost of medical insurance." Rather, it's "declining to
give the daughters a gift [albeit a subsidized one] of medical
insurance." (Incidentally, wouldn't he still have to pay for his
daughters under many employer plans, which reasonably charge extra 
for

extra insureds?) In this respect, it's very much like a parent's
declining to pay for his adult children's college.

 Now it's true that the plaintiff "wants it both ways," and maybe his
employer shouldn't give him that option. But what I don't see is how
his wanting it both ways is "imposing on his daughters" (at least
assuming I'm right that leaving off the daughters entirely isn't
"imposing" on them). It's just giving them a gift that is somewhat
less valuable than what they might want, and that what he might 
easily

give them (again, like paying for their Notre Dame education and not
their Princeton education). How is one adult's choice to give another
adult a slightly less valuable gift than he could have otherwise 
given

an "externality imposing event," at least if "externality imposing
event" is to have any meaning?

 Eugene

FROM: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] ON BEHALF OF Ira Lupu
SENT: Friday, August 16, 2013 2:18 PM
TO: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
SUBJECT: Re: New Twist On Challenge to ACA Contraceptive Mandate

The difference between the college scenario that Greg raises and the
health insurance scenario may be the universal entitlement to the
latter that the ACA creates. As others have said, the Missouri
plaintiff is not obligated to have a family health insurance policy,
nor is he obligated to include his children on his policy. But if he
left them off his policy entirely, they would have to buy health
insurance on their own.

But this plaintiff wants it both ways. He wants the benefits (lower
premiums, information) of the family policy for his non-minor
daughters, but he wants to exclude them from coverage of pregnancy
prevention services. It is that move -- keep the family policy
benefits for himself, while imposing on his daughters the separate
costs of pregnancy prevention services to which the daughters are
otherwise legally entitled -- that is the externality imposing event.

Cutter does not say all externalities are fatal -- it just says that
RLUIPA (and by implication, all RFRA's) should be construed with 
third
party costs in mind. In the Missouri case, the third party costs 
might

be sufficient to force a construction that denies the exemption.

Indeed, if courts are disabled from measuring the substantiality of
the burden, as many plaintiffs argue in these ACA cases, there is all
the more reason to let third party costs operate as a significant
check on exemption claims.

On Fri, Aug 16, 2013 at 4:08 PM, Douglas Laycock
 wrote:

This scenario is occasionally litigated, without the religious twist,
in bitter divorces. Dad refuses to help pay for college, or refuses
even to fill out the financial aid forms, and the courts say he
doesn't have to. The support obligation ends at 18.

That obviously doesn't fit with the realities or expectations of
middle class life, and I think a few states have changed it by
statute. But that's the background law that underlies this 
discussion.


Douglas Laycock

Robert E. Scott Distinguished Professor of Law

University of Virginia Law School

580 Massie Road

Charlottesville, VA 22903

 434-243-8546 [2]

FROM: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [3]
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [4]] ON BEHALF OF Sisk,
Gregory C.
SENT: Friday, August 16, 2013 3:55 PM

TO: 'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'
SUBJECT: RE: New Twist On Challenge to ACA Contraceptive Mandate

I wonder how far some would be willing to take this proposition, that
a parent's financial support for benefits to an adult child can rise
to the level of coercion/leverage that if exercised with religious
motivations could have constitutional implications.

Let me offer a different scenario

RE: New Twist On Challenge to ACA Contraceptive Mandate

2013-08-16 Thread mallamud
One problem,in my opinion, is that RFRA mandates a compelling interest 
test in areas unsuited to it.  Regulation of employment and insurance 
coverage falls within the province of the legislature, and while I am 
worried about limits on freedom when the legislature gets too involved, 
this is not at issue in this case.  Legally, I agree with the suggestion 
that the suit should be dismissed on standing grounds.  But from a 
common sense point of view the provision of a benefit in circumstances 
in which you must affirmatively take additional action to receive the 
benefit should not be considered to impinge on the religious views of 
people who believe they should not have the benefit.  Just do not use 
it.  The policy with contraceptive coverage does not force the potential 
beneficiary to do anything and therefore should not be considered to 
affect his religious views, nor does it force his daughters to take 
advantage of it.


Freedom of religion should promote harmony.  Live and let live.  It 
should not provide religious people with the ability to interfere with 
the provision of benefits to those who do not share the same views.  
This is a classic case of an officious intermeddler trying to cause 
trouble because of personal sensitivities.  Even were he to have a 
right, I think this is a case where it is not right to assert it.  Even 
if he would be satisfied with a judicially mandated provision in the 
policy excluding coverage for anyone with religious objections to it, it 
is just wasting money and causing trouble.  Religious people should not 
interfere with benefits given to people who do not share their beliefs 
and if RFRA really gives them the option to do so, RFRA is not 
furthering the harmony religious freedom should promote.


   Jon

On 2013-08-16 07:41, Friedman, Howard M. wrote:

Eugene--

You are right that there is no obligation for you to furnish them
insurance. But under the ACA individual mandate, the children are
required to have insurance that includes certain women's health care
coverage or else pay a penalty. And we have set up a system where it
is much cheaper to keep children on their parents' employer-provided
group policy than having the children buy policies in the individual
market (assuming they do not have employer-provided insurance). So we
have set up a system with all kinds of economic incentives that
effectively pushes children who are not employed to stay on their
parents' policy-- here one (if the suit is successful) in which the
father is effectively imposing a religious objection on his grown
children. He can presumably do that for minor children, but not
adults.

Howard

-

FROM: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu
[religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] on behalf of Volokh, Eugene
[vol...@law.ucla.edu]
 SENT: Thursday, August 15, 2013 11:33 PM
 TO: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
(religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu)
 SUBJECT: RE: New Twist On Challenge to ACA Contraceptive Mandate

 This might just be my ignorance of the ACA, but I’m puzzled: How is
a father “deny[ing] his 18 and 19 year old daughters on his
insurance policy coverage for contraception” by insisting that any
such policy not have such coverage?

I had assumed that once my children are 18, I would have no 
obligation
to get them insurance, or anything at all. I might well still get 
them

such insurance (I do love them), but if I choose not to, I thought
that this choice wouldn’t be “deny[ing]” them anything, just as
my choice not to buy or lend them a car wouldn’t be “deny[ing]”
them a car. And if I give them an insurance policy that’s not as
good as the one they’d like (or that the government thinks they
ought to have), I still wouldn’t be “deny[ing]” them the better
coverage – I’d just be giving them, with no obligation on my part,
something less than what they’d like (just as my buying them a car
without air conditioning wouldn’t be denying them air conditioning).
Or does the ACA impose such an obligation on the parents of 18- and
19-year-old adults?

 Eugene

FROM: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] ON BEHALF OF Renee L. 
Cyr,

Esq.
 SENT: Thursday, August 15, 2013 8:19 PM
 TO: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 SUBJECT: Re: New Twist On Challenge to ACA Contraceptive Mandate


Does anyone have a problem with a father, on religious freedom

grounds, being able to deny his 18 and 19 year old daughters


on his insurance policy coverage for contraception that the

government has mandated generally? Those are the facts in this


case.


I think that's part of the point that Marci was making -- and not 
only

for an 18 or 19 year old.

The father wasn't just saying he didn't want his girls to practice
contraception; he said he wanted them to not have access to
contraception. The former would be a particular medication used for a
particular purpose; the latter, as I see it, is access to the
parti

Religion and the provision of medical services

2013-02-07 Thread mallamud



   Today the Catholic Bishops rejected the Obama compromise on covering 
contraceptive services and devices under employer-purchased health 
insurance.  I realize that this issue has been discussed, perhaps 
thoroughly, on the religion-law list.  Since community and staff action 
succeeded in blocking a merger between a secular and Catholic hospital 
where I live, I have been very concerned about the nature of the debate 
on religious accommodation.


From a New York Times editorial a year ago:
"EDITORIAL
Women’s Health Care at Risk
Published: February 28, 2012

"A wave of mergers between Roman Catholic and secular hospitals is 
threatening to deprive women in many areas of the country of ready 
access to important reproductive services. Catholic hospitals that merge 
or form partnerships with secular hospitals often try to impose 
religious restrictions against abortions, contraception and 
sterilization on the whole system."


Where there is only one hospital serving a community, I would suggest 
that it should be treated as other monopoly services are (think of 
innkeepers' duty or the obligation of a public utility to serve 
everybody) and required to provide a full range of medical services 
unlimited by religious beliefs.  If a Catholic hospital serves a 
community that can support only one hospital, then its presence prevents 
other hospitals from entering the market.  The hospital is effectively 
imposing Catholic religious views about health treatment on those in 
that market.


While accommodating religious views of doctors and hospitals may be OK 
here there are plenty of alternatives, where there are not, I think that 
hospitals and doctors need to treat  patients in accordance with good 
medical practice unlimited by the religious views of the doctor and 
hospital.  Where there is a clash between the deeply-felt beliefs of a 
medical provider and the needs and desires of the patient, I really do 
not understand why it is not clear that it is the patient's interests 
that must prevail.


When the government provides money that can be used for religious 
education, we accept that where we say the money is provided to the 
parents and students who decide to use it for religious purposes.  Thus, 
when an employer, private or non-profit, provides health insurance to 
its employees, it is effectively the decision of the employee to choose 
to use contraceptive services.  When an institution hires an employee 
who does not agree with the institution's religious views, I would think 
that the institution should have no say over the private decisions of 
the employees.


As a practical matter where there are many doctors and hospitals, 
accommodation is OK, but it should never go so far as to prevent the 
provision of medical services.  It is OK to tell abortion clinics to 
have hospital-like facilities, but if only hospitals can afford those 
facilities, then as far as I am concerned, at least one hospital in each 
market should have to provide the facilities.


When a person runs for public office, we expect that person to put 
aside his or her religious views in making decisions.  I would say that 
it is the same with doctors.  But I know that is impractical, so we 
should come down hard on the implementation of that idea where there are 
no other providers available.


The religion clauses of the Constitution often pose difficult issues 
that defy doctrinal resolution.  But in the case of abortion, 
contraception etc. we can have harmonious relations if individuals are 
free to choose and no one tries to impose religious views on others.  
For the most there would be no problems if everyone would mind his/her 
own business.  Also, while I used the word, "Catholic," the above is not 
limited to Catholics but should apply to anyone with strongly held 
personal views not shared by others.  And it is end-of-life care and 
treatment derived from stem cells that concern me as well.


   Jon
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