Re: The infinite list of random numbers

2001-11-09 Thread Neil Lion


It's undefinable. You're just as likely to get all zeros,
or all ones, as you are to get any arrangement of numbers you care to
mention (or can mention); the probability being 0 for each, I suppose. The 
difference is, there are some infinite binary strings of numbers you cannot 
define without an infinite description (semantic paradoxs
aside).. which one assumes, are 'truly' random.

From: Norman Samish [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: The infinite list of random numbers
Date: Thu, 08 Nov 2001 20:41:30 -0800

Suppose an ideal random number generator produces, every microsecond, 
either
a zero or a one and records it on a tape.  After a long time interval one
would expect the tape to contain a random mix of zeroes and ones with the
number of zeroes equal to the number of ones.  Is this necessarily true?  
Is
it possible that, even after an infinite time had passed, that the tape 
could
contain all zeroes or all ones?  Or MUST the tape contain an equal number 
of
zeroes and ones?  Why?  If you have a reference dealing with this topic,
please let me know.  Thanks,
Norm Samish


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Re: The infinite list of random numbers

2001-11-09 Thread Neil Lion

Yes I suppose so, there are an infinite number of ways to arrange an
infinite number of zeros (or ones), but it's little odds, because they
are essentially the same string as far as we are concerned. Each infinite 
arrangement with zeros and ones together is distinct however.
More generally, all the definable arrangements of zeros and ones,
would have prob. 0.

From: Saibal Mitra [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: everything [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: Re: The infinite list of random numbers
Date: Fri, 9 Nov 2001 18:45:15 +0100

All arrangemets are equally likely, but the probability is, of course, 
zero.
So with probability one you don't get only zeros.

There is a theorem that says that any finite arbitrary configuration will
appear an infinite number of times in an infinite random sequence with
probability one.

Saibal

Neil Lion wrote:
 
  It's undefinable. You're just as likely to get all zeros,
  or all ones, as you are to get any arrangement of numbers you care to
  mention (or can mention); the probability being 0 for each, I suppose. 
The
  difference is, there are some infinite binary strings of numbers you
cannot
  define without an infinite description (semantic paradoxs
  aside).. which one assumes, are 'truly' random.
 
  From: Norman Samish [EMAIL PROTECTED]
  To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
  Subject: The infinite list of random numbers
  Date: Thu, 08 Nov 2001 20:41:30 -0800
  
  Suppose an ideal random number generator produces, every microsecond,
  either
  a zero or a one and records it on a tape.  After a long time interval 
one
  would expect the tape to contain a random mix of zeroes and ones with 
the
  number of zeroes equal to the number of ones.  Is this necessarily 
true?
  Is
  it possible that, even after an infinite time had passed, that the tape
  could
  contain all zeroes or all ones?  Or MUST the tape contain an equal 
number
  of
  zeroes and ones?  Why?  If you have a reference dealing with this 
topic,
  please let me know.  Thanks,
  Norm Samish
 
 
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http://explorer.msn.com/intl.asp
 



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Re: Free will/consciousness/ineffability

2001-10-02 Thread Neil Lion

- Original Message -
From: Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]; [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Monday, October 01, 2001 4:59 PM
Subject: Re: Free will/consciousness/ineffability

 Because the state of a computer exists at a level at which it can be
 perfectly known, copied or changed.

 Yes but the computer itself can not find this level in a provable way.
 This is not obvious (search for benacerraf in the archive).

This is true, but the current state of a computer can always be represented
within a finite string. Perhaps the computer cannot ever realize this, as
the description will be a part of the computer (ad-infinitum), but as long
as I see myself as seperate from the process of the computation, I can
objectively describe it in a 'total' manner - I can always describe all the
constituent parts that satisfy the circumstance of my definition of a
computer. It is by definition, finitely realizable, which isn't really true
for things that really exist in the objective world. In reality, I am not
completely seperate from the computer as an actual physical object, but it's
like an emulation of a computer running on a 'real' computer; code running
on the emulated computer, makes no more sense to the actual physical
computer its based on than any other arbitrary program would. A physical
computer makes no more sense to the 'cosmos' than does any other arbitrary
arrangement of objects.

 Let's say we take a snapshot of a consistant conscious computer that's
 been evolved to a certain point. It's possible for me to have created an
 identical computer from nothing, without having the need to evolve it.
 Now the first evolved computer, is consistant and may even have an
 accurate set of memories, reflecting where it is now, and where is has
been,
 etc... However, the second created machine, which is in *exactly* the
same state
 as the first, has a set of false memories, that we know that it has never
 actually experienced. Its only resort, on the basis of its
 'infallibility' is that it did in fact experience them, but in the
platonic (timeless)
 world and not in our own. The consistancy of the computer has not been
 contravened, as perhaps it would have been (as you have said previously)
 if I had simply changed its memory; yet its inner certainty of memory is
 fallible.

 I agree and that is why I believe that IF we are machine THEN we are
 immaterial machine. We have never leave Plato heaven if you want.
 Now I don't believe copy of material universe exists in Platonia.
 Appearance of physical universes emerges on the computational histories.
 To explain appearnance of lawfulness we need to take into account
 *ALL* computational histories.

So is a physical computer an immaterial machine, or is it just an example of
an immaterial machine, that does actually exist in somewhere in Plationia,
or is it neither? Seeing that there is no rigerous way to define what
actually constitues a physical computer, and what does not, does it make any
sense to say my desktop computer has become conscious? As the entire
universe is eventually connected, I could prob. show and almost infinite
number of such machines, just by choosing arbitary points in space to
represent the various units of my computer.

I agree that there is a problem translating from first person experiene to
third person reality.  However, I believe that memory is a first-person
experience, as opposed to something that is 'out-there', in the
'third-person', that has a physical explanation/theory that is more
fundamental than the actuality of the experience.

 This confirms what I say, you reason quite correctly. Now comp is
 my working hypothesis (I don't care at all if comp is true or false).
 What I say is that IF comp is true then the apparently 3-person
 physical phenomena are in reality the result of interference and
 partial sharing of many number theoretical machine anticipations.

OK, so memory may be a first person experience to us, but would it be a
first person experience to an actual physical computer? All the parts of a
physical computer are mutually exclusive and rely on a specific physical
organisation, existing in the third-person in relation to each other.
Therefore, there is no real sense in which the physical computer is in the
first-person with regards to anything. It is always going to perceive its
memory in a third-person sense. It perhaps is justified to say that that
although this computer specifically is not conscious/1st-person, it is an
example of an equivalent that does exist somewhere in the platonic world or
in the multiverse, and so in a certain sense, is conscious, but this seems a
bit dubious.