It has sometimes been stated that the teacher of righteousness had either
served as the high priest or had expected to be named the high priest. Is
there good reason to state that?
best,
Stephen Goranson
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g-Megillot mailing list
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No - it's just an inductive argument, first made by Stegemann, if memory
serves.
_Dierk
- Original Message -
From: Stephen Goranson [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: g-megillot@McMaster.ca
Sent: Wednesday, March 16, 2005 6:57 PM
Subject: [Megillot] the teacher and the high priest?
It has
