Thanks for the interesting comments on Spain vs. Italy
A few years ago there was some discussion that the vihuela sources
weren't so clear about the strict no octave policy. What is the current
thinking on this?
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Sent from my Android phone with GMX Mail. Please excuse my
Here's Mimmo's researched opinion:
The lute in its historical reality
by Mimmo Peruffo
p.22- The vihuela case: unisons or octaves?
1. Italian and German string making technology before 1570 ca. (the best
of that time)
was not so advanced as to grant the production of efficient enough bass
Dear Martin,
You may recall that quite some years ago it was generally accepted that
the vihuela (but not the viola) was strung in unison - I believe this
was a misreading of an early source and was explained through the great
wealth of Spain in the periof whereby such expensive
