Re: [Vo]:Faraday's understanding of light in a vacuum vs the Michelson-Morley experiment

2024-04-21 Thread H L V
In the late 19th and early 20th century the physics community began to
enshrine mathematical ingenuity as the best way to resolve the tensions
between theory and experiment and grew increasingly dismissive of
philosophical questioning and speculation.

The theory of Special Relativity is typically presented as "saving"
Maxwell's equations from logical inconsistency.
It did this by introducing some extraordinary new physics  instead of
uncovering some metaphysical conceits within the theory.
I am not talking about the Galilean transformation. I am talking about the
more elementary question: what does it mean to be in motion?

Why should we insist on treating every type of motion as being a quality
that is defined by convention with respect to a frame of reference?
Einstein believed it was necessary and in order to save the laws of physics
he formulated the theory of special relativity. However, it seems to me the
_phenomena_ of electromagnetism  rather than Maxwell's theory of
electromagnetism is telling us something different. Some types of motion
should be treated as a relational quality that occurs between frames of
references rather than being quality that is determined within a given
frame of reference.

Consider the Lorentz force on a charged particle q moving with velocity v:

Force = qE + q(v x B)

E and B are the electric and magnetic fields.

Since relativists think v is determined by the frame of reference the value
of v will be zero in the frame of reference of the charged particle. This
leads to the paradox that the laws of nature are not the same in all frames
of reference.  From a relativist understanding of velocity there are only
two ways to resolve this paradox: either there must be an absolute frame of
rest known as the aether or one must adopt the extraordinary postulates of
the special theory of relativity. However, this choice represents a
reliance on a particular conception of velocity to tell one how to
interpret the equations of motion. If one adopts a relational understanding
of motion rather than relative understanding, the velocity is not prone to
disappear with a change of frame.

It is worth noting that Weber's theory of electromagnetism , which was the
leading contender to Maxwell's theory at the time,  made explicit use of
relational motion. Although Weber developed his theory in order to avoid
postulating the existence of magnetic fields, I don't see why his concept
of relation velocity can't be applied to situations involving Faraday's
magnetic fields.

Harry



On Thu, Apr 18, 2024 at 1:18 PM MSF  wrote:

> Faraday's message to Maxwell parallels Aristotle's complaint about the
> Egyptians. Aristotle implied words to the effect that the ancient Egyptians
> thought that the physical world should obey mathematics instead of math
> describing reality. There's a lot of that going on today. The so-called
> standard model is, in my opinion, a mathematical castle in the air.
> On Tuesday, April 16th, 2024 at 5:14 AM, H L V 
> wrote:
>
> Faraday wrote this 10 years before Maxwell published his first work on
> electromgnetism in 1856 which was titled "On Faraday's lines of Force"
> Maxwell's equations were first published in 1862. It seems Maxwell
> interpreted Faraday's writings in a manner that was consistent with an
> aether.
>
> I would say Faraday was frustrated by Maxwell's mathematical treatment of
> his work. Since he could not comprehend it he could not judge it.
> Here is a passage from a letter Faraday wrote to Maxwell asking all
> mathematically adept theoreticians to express themselves in terms an
> experimentalist can understand:
>
> "There is one thing I would be glad to ask you. When a mathematician
> engaged in investigating physical actions and results has arrived at his
> own conclusions, may they not be expressed in common language as fully,
> clearly, and definitely as in mathematical formula? If so, would it not be
> a great boon to such as we to express them so—translating them out of their
> hieroglyphics that we also might work upon them by experiment. I think it
> must be so, because I have always found that you could convey to me a
> perfectly clear idea of your conclusions, which, though they may give me no
> full understanding of the steps of your process, gave me the results
> neither above nor below the truth, and so clear in character that I can
> think and work from them.
> If this be possible, would it not be a good thing if mathematicians,
> writing on these subjects, were to give us their results in this popular
> useful working state as well as in that which is their own and proper to
> them?"
>
> Harry
>
> On Mon, Apr 15, 2024 at 11:17 PM MSF  wrote:
>
>>
>> Hmmm... A year after Maxwell's equations. Maxwell can't have been too
>> happy about that, as his equations described the behavior of the aether.
>> And he repeatedly claimed that he had merely expressed Faraday in
>> conventional mathematical form.
>> On Monday, April 15th, 2024 at 8:04 

Re: [Vo]:Faraday's understanding of light in a vacuum vs the Michelson-Morley experiment

2024-04-18 Thread MSF
Faraday's message to Maxwell parallels Aristotle's complaint about the 
Egyptians. Aristotle implied words to the effect that the ancient Egyptians 
thought that the physical world should obey mathematics instead of math 
describing reality. There's a lot of that going on today. The so-called 
standard model is, in my opinion, a mathematical castle in the air.
On Tuesday, April 16th, 2024 at 5:14 AM, H L V  wrote:

> Faraday wrote this 10 years before Maxwell published his first work on 
> electromgnetism in 1856 which was titled "On Faraday's lines of Force"
> Maxwell's equations were first published in 1862. It seems Maxwell 
> interpreted Faraday's writings in a manner that was consistent with an aether.
>
> I would say Faraday was frustrated by Maxwell's mathematical treatment of his 
> work. Since he could not comprehend it he could not judge it.
> Here is a passage from a letter Faraday wrote to Maxwell asking all 
> mathematically adept theoreticians to express themselves in terms an 
> experimentalist can understand:
>
> "There is one thing I would be glad to ask you. When a mathematician engaged 
> in investigating physical actions and results has arrived at his own 
> conclusions, may they not be expressed in common language as fully, clearly, 
> and definitely as in mathematical formula? If so, would it not be a great 
> boon to such as we to express them so—translating them out of their 
> hieroglyphics that we also might work upon them by experiment. I think it 
> must be so, because I have always found that you could convey to me a 
> perfectly clear idea of your conclusions, which, though they may give me no 
> full understanding of the steps of your process, gave me the results neither 
> above nor below the truth, and so clear in character that I can think and 
> work from them.
> If this be possible, would it not be a good thing if mathematicians, writing 
> on these subjects, were to give us their results in this popular useful 
> working state as well as in that which is their own and proper to them?"
>
> Harry
>
> On Mon, Apr 15, 2024 at 11:17 PM MSF  wrote:
>
>> Hmmm... A year after Maxwell's equations. Maxwell can't have been too happy 
>> about that, as his equations described the behavior of the aether. And he 
>> repeatedly claimed that he had merely expressed Faraday in conventional 
>> mathematical form.
>> On Monday, April 15th, 2024 at 8:04 PM, MSF  wrote:
>>
>>> This gives you an idea what a deep thinker Faraday was. Do you know if he 
>>> posited this idea before Maxwell published his equations? I thought I had 
>>> read everything Faraday wrote. Somehow I missed this one.
>>>
>>> MIchael
>>> On Monday, April 15th, 2024 at 12:08 PM, H L V  wrote:
>>>
 This is a quote from a letter written by Michael Faraday to Richard 
 Philips on April 15, 1846 (bold letters were added by me)

 "The view which I am so bold to put forth considers, therefore, radiation 
 as a kind of species of vibration in the lines of force which are known to 
 connect particles and also masses of matter together. It endeavors to 
 dismiss the aether, but not the vibration. The kind of vibration which, I 
 believe, can alone account for the wonderful, varied, and beautiful 
 phaenomena of polarization, is not the same as that which occurs on the 
 surface of disturbed water, or the waves of sound in gases or liquids, for 
 the vibrations in these cases are direct, or to and from the centre of 
 action, whereas the former are lateral. It seems to me, that the resultant 
 of two or more lines of force is in an apt condition for that action which 
 may be considered as equivalent to a lateral vibration; whereas a uniform 
 medium, like the aether, does not appear apt, or more apt than air or 
 water."

 The idea of an aether which exists independently of matter and fills the 
 vacuum is what the Michelson-Morely experiment was designed to detect. 
 However, if I am reading Faraday correctly he is saying that the 
 transmission of light depends on the source and the receiver being linked 
 together by "lines of force". Unlike the hypothesized aether, Faraday's 
 lines of force have _no_ existence independent of charged particles. While 
 the MM apparatus is being built the lines of force would be constantly 
 morphing but once the apparatus was complete they would quickly settle 
 down into static lines. When the experiment begins the lines of force 
 between the mirrors can be likened to straight fibre optic cables between 
 the mirrors. At this stage since the lines of force would be moving in 
 tandem with the entire apparatus Faraday's qualitative theory predicts the 
 observed null result of the Michelson-Morely experiment.

 Harry

 Harry

Re: [Vo]:Faraday's understanding of light in a vacuum vs the Michelson-Morley experiment

2024-04-16 Thread H L V
Faraday wrote this 10 years before Maxwell published his first work on
electromgnetism in 1856 which was titled "On Faraday's lines of Force"
Maxwell's equations were first  published in 1862. It seems Maxwell
interpreted Faraday's writings in a manner that was consistent with an
aether.

I would say Faraday was frustrated by Maxwell's mathematical treatment of
his work. Since he could not comprehend it he could not judge it.
Here is a passage from a letter Faraday wrote to Maxwell asking all
mathematically adept theoreticians to express themselves in terms an
experimentalist can understand:

"There is one thing I would be glad to ask you. When a mathematician
engaged in investigating physical actions and results has arrived at his
own conclusions, may they not be expressed in common language as fully,
clearly, and definitely as in mathematical formula? If so, would it not be
a great boon to such as we to express them so—translating them out of their
hieroglyphics that we also might work upon them by experiment. I think it
must be so, because I have always found that you could convey to me a
perfectly clear idea of your conclusions, which, though they may give me no
full understanding of the steps of your process, gave me the results
neither above nor below the truth, and so clear in character that I can
think and work from them.
If this be possible, would it not be a good thing if mathematicians,
writing on these subjects, were to give us their results in this popular
useful working state as well as in that which is their own and proper to
them?"

Harry

On Mon, Apr 15, 2024 at 11:17 PM MSF  wrote:

>
> Hmmm... A year after Maxwell's equations. Maxwell can't have been too
> happy about that, as his equations described the behavior of the aether.
> And he repeatedly claimed that he had merely expressed Faraday in
> conventional mathematical form.
> On Monday, April 15th, 2024 at 8:04 PM, MSF 
> wrote:
>
>
> This gives you an idea what a deep thinker Faraday was. Do you know if he
> posited this idea before Maxwell published his equations? I thought I had
> read everything Faraday wrote. Somehow I missed this one.
>
> MIchael
> On Monday, April 15th, 2024 at 12:08 PM, H L V 
> wrote:
>
> This is a quote from a letter written by Michael Faraday to Richard
> Philips on April 15, 1846 (bold letters were added by me)
>
> *"The view which I am so bold to put forth considers, therefore, radiation
> as a kind of species of vibration in the lines of force which are known to
> connect particles and also masses of matter together. It endeavors to
> dismiss the aether, but not the vibration. The kind of vibration which, I
> believe, can alone account for the wonderful, varied, and beautiful
> phaenomena of polarization, is not the same as that which occurs on the
> surface of disturbed water, or the waves of sound in gases or liquids, for
> the vibrations in these cases are direct, or to and from the centre of
> action, whereas the former are lateral. It seems to me, that the resultant
> of two or more lines of force is in an apt condition for that action which
> may be considered as equivalent to a lateral vibration; whereas a uniform
> medium, like the aether, does not appear apt, or more apt than air or
> water."*
>
> The idea of an aether which exists independently of matter and fills the
> vacuum is what the Michelson-Morely experiment was designed to detect.
> However, if I am reading Faraday correctly he is saying that the
> transmission of light depends on the source and the receiver being linked
> together by "lines of force". Unlike the hypothesized aether, Faraday's
> lines of force have _no_ existence independent of charged particles. While
> the MM apparatus is being built the lines of force would be constantly
> morphing but once the apparatus was complete they would quickly settle down
> into static lines. When the experiment begins the lines of force between
> the mirrors can be likened to straight fibre optic cables between the
> mirrors. At this stage since the lines of force would be moving in tandem
> with the entire apparatus Faraday's qualitative theory predicts the
> observed null result of the Michelson-Morely experiment.
>
> Harry
>
>
>
>
> Harry
>
>
>
>
>


Re: [Vo]:Faraday's understanding of light in a vacuum vs the Michelson-Morley experiment

2024-04-15 Thread MSF
Hmmm... A year after Maxwell's equations. Maxwell can't have been too happy 
about that, as his equations described the behavior of the aether. And he 
repeatedly claimed that he had merely expressed Faraday in conventional 
mathematical form.
On Monday, April 15th, 2024 at 8:04 PM, MSF  wrote:

> This gives you an idea what a deep thinker Faraday was. Do you know if he 
> posited this idea before Maxwell published his equations? I thought I had 
> read everything Faraday wrote. Somehow I missed this one.
>
> MIchael
> On Monday, April 15th, 2024 at 12:08 PM, H L V  wrote:
>
>> This is a quote from a letter written by Michael Faraday to Richard Philips 
>> on April 15, 1846 (bold letters were added by me)
>>
>> "The view which I am so bold to put forth considers, therefore, radiation as 
>> a kind of species of vibration in the lines of force which are known to 
>> connect particles and also masses of matter together. It endeavors to 
>> dismiss the aether, but not the vibration. The kind of vibration which, I 
>> believe, can alone account for the wonderful, varied, and beautiful 
>> phaenomena of polarization, is not the same as that which occurs on the 
>> surface of disturbed water, or the waves of sound in gases or liquids, for 
>> the vibrations in these cases are direct, or to and from the centre of 
>> action, whereas the former are lateral. It seems to me, that the resultant 
>> of two or more lines of force is in an apt condition for that action which 
>> may be considered as equivalent to a lateral vibration; whereas a uniform 
>> medium, like the aether, does not appear apt, or more apt than air or water."
>>
>> The idea of an aether which exists independently of matter and fills the 
>> vacuum is what the Michelson-Morely experiment was designed to detect. 
>> However, if I am reading Faraday correctly he is saying that the 
>> transmission of light depends on the source and the receiver being linked 
>> together by "lines of force". Unlike the hypothesized aether, Faraday's 
>> lines of force have _no_ existence independent of charged particles. While 
>> the MM apparatus is being built the lines of force would be constantly 
>> morphing but once the apparatus was complete they would quickly settle down 
>> into static lines. When the experiment begins the lines of force between the 
>> mirrors can be likened to straight fibre optic cables between the mirrors. 
>> At this stage since the lines of force would be moving in tandem with the 
>> entire apparatus Faraday's qualitative theory predicts the observed null 
>> result of the Michelson-Morely experiment.
>>
>> Harry
>>
>> Harry

Re: [Vo]:Faraday's understanding of light in a vacuum vs the Michelson-Morley experiment

2024-04-15 Thread MSF
This gives you an idea what a deep thinker Faraday was. Do you know if he 
posited this idea before Maxwell published his equations? I thought I had read 
everything Faraday wrote. Somehow I missed this one.

MIchael
On Monday, April 15th, 2024 at 12:08 PM, H L V  wrote:

> This is a quote from a letter written by Michael Faraday to Richard Philips 
> on April 15, 1846 (bold letters were added by me)
>
> "The view which I am so bold to put forth considers, therefore, radiation as 
> a kind of species of vibration in the lines of force which are known to 
> connect particles and also masses of matter together. It endeavors to dismiss 
> the aether, but not the vibration. The kind of vibration which, I believe, 
> can alone account for the wonderful, varied, and beautiful phaenomena of 
> polarization, is not the same as that which occurs on the surface of 
> disturbed water, or the waves of sound in gases or liquids, for the 
> vibrations in these cases are direct, or to and from the centre of action, 
> whereas the former are lateral. It seems to me, that the resultant of two or 
> more lines of force is in an apt condition for that action which may be 
> considered as equivalent to a lateral vibration; whereas a uniform medium, 
> like the aether, does not appear apt, or more apt than air or water."
>
> The idea of an aether which exists independently of matter and fills the 
> vacuum is what the Michelson-Morely experiment was designed to detect. 
> However, if I am reading Faraday correctly he is saying that the transmission 
> of light depends on the source and the receiver being linked together by 
> "lines of force". Unlike the hypothesized aether, Faraday's lines of force 
> have _no_ existence independent of charged particles. While the MM apparatus 
> is being built the lines of force would be constantly morphing but once the 
> apparatus was complete they would quickly settle down into static lines. When 
> the experiment begins the lines of force between the mirrors can be likened 
> to straight fibre optic cables between the mirrors. At this stage since the 
> lines of force would be moving in tandem with the entire apparatus Faraday's 
> qualitative theory predicts the observed null result of the Michelson-Morely 
> experiment.
>
> Harry
>
> Harry

[Vo]:Faraday's understanding of light in a vacuum vs the Michelson-Morley experiment

2024-04-15 Thread H L V
This is a quote from a letter written by  Michael Faraday to Richard
Philips on April 15, 1846 (bold letters were added by me)

*"The view which I am so bold to put forth considers, therefore, radiation
as a kind of species of vibration in the lines of force which are known to
connect particles and also masses of matter together. It endeavors to
dismiss the aether, but not the vibration. The kind of vibration which, I
believe, can alone account for the wonderful, varied, and beautiful
phaenomena of polarization, is not the same as that which occurs on the
surface of disturbed water, or the waves of sound in gases or liquids, for
the vibrations in these cases are direct, or to and from the centre of
action, whereas the former are lateral. It seems to me, that the resultant
of two or more lines of force is in an apt condition for that action which
may be considered as equivalent to a lateral vibration; whereas a uniform
medium, like the aether, does not appear apt, or more apt than air or
water."*

The idea of an aether which exists independently of matter and fills the
vacuum is what the  Michelson-Morely experiment was designed to detect.
However, if I am reading Faraday correctly he is saying that the
transmission of light depends on the source and the receiver being linked
together by "lines of force". Unlike the hypothesized aether, Faraday's
lines of force have _no_ existence independent of charged particles. While
the MM apparatus is being built the lines of force would be
constantly morphing  but once the apparatus was complete they would quickly
settle down into static lines. When the experiment begins the lines of
force between the mirrors can be likened to straight fibre optic cables
between the mirrors.  At this stage since the lines of force would be
moving in tandem with the entire apparatus Faraday's qualitative theory
predicts the observed null result of the Michelson-Morely experiment.

Harry




Harry