Hi, Just a quick question. Why does a one_to_one association require that the corresponding model/table (the one containing the FK) use a many_to_one?
Basically just asking as I'm trying to understand that better as I keep forgetting about it. Also, I know this is not a very common situation, but what if both tables use their own PK as FK to the other table (i.e. both tables have the same PKs)? Many thanks, Michael ********************************************************************************************** The information in this email is confidential and may be legally privileged. It is intended solely for the addressee and access to the email by anyone else is unauthorised. If you are not the intended recipient, any disclosure, copying, distribution or any action taken or omitted to be taken in reliance on it, is prohibited and may be unlawful. When addressed to our clients, any opinions or advice contained in this e-mail are subject to the terms and conditions expressed in the governing client engagement leter or contract. If you have received this email in error please notify [email protected] John Henderson (Holdings) Ltd Registered office: 9 Hightown Avenue, Mallusk, County Antrim, Northern Ireland, BT36 4RT. Registered in Northern Ireland Registration Number NI010588 Vat No.: 814 6399 12 ********************************************************************************* -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "sequel-talk" group. To post to this group, send email to [email protected]. To unsubscribe from this group, send email to [email protected]. For more options, visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/sequel-talk?hl=en.
