On Thursday, May 3, 2012 4:09:52 AM UTC-7, Michael Gliwinski wrote: > > Hi, > > Just a quick question. Why does a one_to_one association require that the > corresponding model/table (the one containing the FK) use a many_to_one? >
Because of how it is implemented. The alternative would be a one_to_one option that basically used many_to_one internally. There needs to be some way to tell Sequel which table has the foreign key, and the current solution seems easiest. > Basically just asking as I'm trying to understand that better as I keep > forgetting about it. > > Also, I know this is not a very common situation, but what if both tables > use > their own PK as FK to the other table (i.e. both tables have the same > PKs)? > > Model1.many_to_one :model2, :key=>:id (assuming id is your pk) Jeremy -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "sequel-talk" group. To view this discussion on the web visit https://groups.google.com/d/msg/sequel-talk/-/Kyic0K0HF7gJ. To post to this group, send email to [email protected]. To unsubscribe from this group, send email to [email protected]. For more options, visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/sequel-talk?hl=en.
