That was a very important clarification, Marshall. Thanks for that.
Careless of me . . .
JBB
On Wednesday, Nov 1, 2006, at 00:31 Asia/Tokyo, Marshall Dudley wrote:
"Jonathan B. Britten" wrote:
It makes no sense to me also, given the widely published claim that
urine is sterile, containing no pathogens at all.
Whether or not urine is sterile depends on the health of the person. A
person with a kidney or bladder infection, or a UTI, and many STD's can
have very high levels of bacteria in the urine. If the person is
healthy,
then the urine should be sterile.
Marshall
On Monday, Oct 30, 2006, at 23:44 Asia/Tokyo, faithstfrancis wrote:
So would all those thousands of people drinking their own urine (even
mothers and daughters sharing theirs) really be “septic”?
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