On Fri, Feb 23, 2007 at 11:43:51AM +0100, [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
> Now I'm still confused. This seems to work for utf-8 data written TO the
> DB: i.e. my ?, ? and ? are correctly visible in the DB, as latin-1 encoded
> strings. When reading FROM the DB, I'd expect someone (mysql or sqlobject)
> to convert those strings back to utf-8, which isn't happening, though.
>
> It seems like e.g. some changes in the string validator would do the job:
StringValidator is intended to pass strings back and forth as is. For
recoding there is UnicodeCol and UnicodeValidator, but it only needs one
encoding - dbEncoding.
Oleg.
--
Oleg Broytmann http://phd.pp.ru/ [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Programmers don't die, they just GOSUB without RETURN.
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