On Mon, Aug 17, 2009 at 4:47 PM, Jesse Vollmar<[email protected]> wrote:
> Wouldn't that mean that the ISP would have to define the vlans on their end?
> That wouldn't be an option.
>
> On Mon, Aug 17, 2009 at 5:43 PM, Victor Padro <[email protected]> wrote:
>>
>> On Mon, Aug 17, 2009 at 4:33 PM, Jesse Vollmar<[email protected]> wrote:
>> > Hey guys,
>> > after googling this for a while, I'm not finding any clear instructions
>> > for
>> > doing this. I currently have a multi-wan scenario with failover
>> > configured.
>> > I just purchased another static IP block from one of the ISPs and they
>> > are
>> > now routing those to me (so they say). I would like to use this new
>> > subnet
>> > in concurrence with my old subnet, both on the same interface (OPT1).
>> > The
>> > subnets do not share the same gateway. What is the proper way to
>> > configure
>> > this?
>> > Thanks,
>> > Jesse
>> >
>> >
>>
>> Use VLANs?
>>
>> --
>> Linux User #452368
>> Ubuntu User #28025
>> http://twitter.com/vpadro
>>
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>>
>> "Doing a thing well is often a waste of time."
>>
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>
>

Maybe you can use a capable VLAN switch where you can plug you
modem/whatever you are using and assign the IPs in Pfsense as separate
interfaces?
I've done that using ADSL and Cable...

-- 
Linux User #452368
http://twitter.com/vpadro

Manifiesto por una cultura libre:
http://culturalibre.org/

"Doing a thing well is often a waste of time."

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