> On Jan 25, 2017, at 9:47 AM, Jacob Bandes-Storch <jtban...@gmail.com> wrote:
> Really? My observation from a quick test is that "a? = b" assigns b to a if a 
> already has a value, or does nothing if it's nil. This is sort of the 
> opposite of what's being proposed, which is that "a ?= b" should assign to a 
> only if it does NOT have a value.

My mistake, I misread the proposal. What Nichi appears to be suggesting is an 
assignment that only happens when `b` has a value. I would hesitate to spell 
that `?=` since that's so similar to '? =', but perhaps it's useful, though 
there are many ways to spell that already.


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