On Mon, 14 Dec 2020 at 06:37, stevea <[email protected]> wrote:
> This is problematic to my thinking. In California (my state), at an > UNCONTROLLED intersection (no traffic_signal, stop sign, other traffic > control device...), for example where the sidewalk "would continue to > another sidewalk on the other side of the roadway," pedestrians ALWAYS have > the right-of-way (over all vehicles) when they indicate it. How do they > indicate it? By lifting one foot to step towards / into the intersection > (from the sidewalk). Drivers must (by law) stop short of entering the > intersection to allow the pedestrian to cross, once a pedestrian has so > entered the crossing (even it if is unmarked or "invisible"). > Australia goes even a bit further in that pedestrians always have right-of-way, regardless of crossings (marked or unmarked) or not. https://roadsafety.transport.nsw.gov.au/stayingsafe/pedestrians/needtoknow/index.html " Drivers must give way to pedestrians crossing the road into which their vehicles are turning. You must also give way to pedestrians if there is a danger of colliding with them, even if there is no marked pedestrian crossing. Thanks Graeme
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